Ambiguity of “quite” Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)The problem with the word “quite”How is quite used here?What words typically collocate with “quite”?The problem with the word “quite”“no longer…when…”--ambiguity?“mine” ambiguityambiguity of a phrase“Sales” ambiguityWhat meaning is “legitimate(ly)” gaining?strict definition of hypocriteIf I trim off the right-hand part of something, can it be said a right-hand trimming?What does “take dead aim” mean? Does “dead” do anything?When you say “plain old” adjectivally, is a comma required between them?
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Ambiguity of “quite”
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)The problem with the word “quite”How is quite used here?What words typically collocate with “quite”?The problem with the word “quite”“no longer…when…”--ambiguity?“mine” ambiguityambiguity of a phrase“Sales” ambiguityWhat meaning is “legitimate(ly)” gaining?strict definition of hypocriteIf I trim off the right-hand part of something, can it be said a right-hand trimming?What does “take dead aim” mean? Does “dead” do anything?When you say “plain old” adjectivally, is a comma required between them?
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
The adverb "quite" has the following meanings according to the Merriam-Webster dictionary:
1: wholly, completely ("not quite
finished")
2: to an extreme : positively "quite
sure" —often used as an intensifier
with a "quite a swell guy" "quite a
beauty"
3: to a considerable extent : rather
("quite near")
My understanding is that #1 and #2 conflict with #3. For example, when you say "She's quite right", do you mean "She's completely right" or "To a considerable extent, she's right"? Notice that in the latter case you're not saying that she is completely right.
Another example is "I'm quite sure". Does it necessarily mean "I'm completely sure"?
Does the word really have conflicting meanings that can possibly cause ambiguity? Or am I missing something?
meaning ambiguity
add a comment |
The adverb "quite" has the following meanings according to the Merriam-Webster dictionary:
1: wholly, completely ("not quite
finished")
2: to an extreme : positively "quite
sure" —often used as an intensifier
with a "quite a swell guy" "quite a
beauty"
3: to a considerable extent : rather
("quite near")
My understanding is that #1 and #2 conflict with #3. For example, when you say "She's quite right", do you mean "She's completely right" or "To a considerable extent, she's right"? Notice that in the latter case you're not saying that she is completely right.
Another example is "I'm quite sure". Does it necessarily mean "I'm completely sure"?
Does the word really have conflicting meanings that can possibly cause ambiguity? Or am I missing something?
meaning ambiguity
2
"Quite sure" is, in fact, a bit problematic, and it really depends on emphasis to be understood correctly. "I'm quite sure" can mean either "I'm fairly sure" or "I'm absolutely sure". That said, to an American ear I expect using "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure" would sound a bit quaint.
– wyatt
Sep 27 '10 at 2:13
To a different American ear, I would generally expect "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure," although I would not be surprised to hear it used for "fairly sure".
– Peter Shor
Apr 28 '11 at 13:51
add a comment |
The adverb "quite" has the following meanings according to the Merriam-Webster dictionary:
1: wholly, completely ("not quite
finished")
2: to an extreme : positively "quite
sure" —often used as an intensifier
with a "quite a swell guy" "quite a
beauty"
3: to a considerable extent : rather
("quite near")
My understanding is that #1 and #2 conflict with #3. For example, when you say "She's quite right", do you mean "She's completely right" or "To a considerable extent, she's right"? Notice that in the latter case you're not saying that she is completely right.
Another example is "I'm quite sure". Does it necessarily mean "I'm completely sure"?
Does the word really have conflicting meanings that can possibly cause ambiguity? Or am I missing something?
meaning ambiguity
The adverb "quite" has the following meanings according to the Merriam-Webster dictionary:
1: wholly, completely ("not quite
finished")
2: to an extreme : positively "quite
sure" —often used as an intensifier
with a "quite a swell guy" "quite a
beauty"
3: to a considerable extent : rather
("quite near")
My understanding is that #1 and #2 conflict with #3. For example, when you say "She's quite right", do you mean "She's completely right" or "To a considerable extent, she's right"? Notice that in the latter case you're not saying that she is completely right.
Another example is "I'm quite sure". Does it necessarily mean "I'm completely sure"?
Does the word really have conflicting meanings that can possibly cause ambiguity? Or am I missing something?
meaning ambiguity
meaning ambiguity
edited Sep 26 '10 at 7:42
b.roth
asked Sep 26 '10 at 7:34
b.rothb.roth
16.8k1877123
16.8k1877123
2
"Quite sure" is, in fact, a bit problematic, and it really depends on emphasis to be understood correctly. "I'm quite sure" can mean either "I'm fairly sure" or "I'm absolutely sure". That said, to an American ear I expect using "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure" would sound a bit quaint.
– wyatt
Sep 27 '10 at 2:13
To a different American ear, I would generally expect "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure," although I would not be surprised to hear it used for "fairly sure".
– Peter Shor
Apr 28 '11 at 13:51
add a comment |
2
"Quite sure" is, in fact, a bit problematic, and it really depends on emphasis to be understood correctly. "I'm quite sure" can mean either "I'm fairly sure" or "I'm absolutely sure". That said, to an American ear I expect using "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure" would sound a bit quaint.
– wyatt
Sep 27 '10 at 2:13
To a different American ear, I would generally expect "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure," although I would not be surprised to hear it used for "fairly sure".
– Peter Shor
Apr 28 '11 at 13:51
2
2
"Quite sure" is, in fact, a bit problematic, and it really depends on emphasis to be understood correctly. "I'm quite sure" can mean either "I'm fairly sure" or "I'm absolutely sure". That said, to an American ear I expect using "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure" would sound a bit quaint.
– wyatt
Sep 27 '10 at 2:13
"Quite sure" is, in fact, a bit problematic, and it really depends on emphasis to be understood correctly. "I'm quite sure" can mean either "I'm fairly sure" or "I'm absolutely sure". That said, to an American ear I expect using "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure" would sound a bit quaint.
– wyatt
Sep 27 '10 at 2:13
To a different American ear, I would generally expect "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure," although I would not be surprised to hear it used for "fairly sure".
– Peter Shor
Apr 28 '11 at 13:51
To a different American ear, I would generally expect "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure," although I would not be surprised to hear it used for "fairly sure".
– Peter Shor
Apr 28 '11 at 13:51
add a comment |
9 Answers
9
active
oldest
votes
No, you're not missing anything - the word has ambiguous definitions.
4
Agreed: part of its typically English charm is that the speaker may reserve his true opinion for himself.
– Cerberus
Apr 28 '11 at 12:27
It's all in the inflection, baby
– New Alexandria
Sep 9 '13 at 22:24
add a comment |
When it's used with an absolute, like correct or complete, people generally mean #1 or #2. When someone says, "Quite nice, I'm sure," watch out.
add a comment |
"Quite!" as in, "Hear, hear!" or "indubitably!"
There is a distinct bias toward the opinion of the speaker with this word usage. It implies "completely" while simultaneously allowing for factual refutation:
"He was quite close to falling off the cliff!"
"On the contrary, he was several feet away from the cliff. He was quite safe from a fall."
"Being so near to the cliff is quite the same as having nearly fallen!"
"Quite so, and yet he was never at risk for having fallen."
In this exchange, the opinion of the first speaker is that the object person was very close.
The respondent begs to differ, asserting the object person was very safe.
The initial speaker counters with a circular reply.
The respondent refutes the reply by agreement.
The term "quite" is not an absolute, it is a conditional that implies conditions nearly identical to certainty, yet lacking certainty.
add a comment |
Many languages have words with more than one meaning and English is no exception. That is without considering tone. English is made more difficult by the geographical spread of the user base leading to words having different meanings in different cultures or locales, including between England and Scotland.
Considered from a standard English English perspective, your examples 1 and 3 give the two meanings normally attributed to the word "quite", however in example 2 you mix both, as "quite sure" would come under example 1, while the others would come under example 3.
add a comment |
There is also a dialectal difference. American speakers tend to use it in the first two senses and British and Australian speakers in the third sense. But for both groups, the senses are all available, and stress and intonation might also have a role in deciding which sense is relevant.
I speak a British-style English. If I say that something is 'quite good', my normal meaning of that phrase is 'rather good' or 'somewhat good' (sense 3). However, if I put the stress on quite, it means 'completely good' (sense 1).
If an adjective describing an extreme quality is used with quite, then it can only be used in the first sense: therefore, 'quite exquisite' means 'absolutely exquisite'; 'quite revolting' would usually mean 'absolutely revolting'.
add a comment |
I've just seen this a post.
I'm involved in writing English courses for speakers of other languages. Our explanation of the different meanings of the adverb "quite" is as follows:
- when followed by a non-gradable adjective (one that cannot be preceded by "very"), quite means "absolutely" (e.g. quite right, quite mad, quite perfect, etc.
- when followed by a gradable adjective, quite means fairly (e.g. quite good, quite warm, etc.
I'm a British English speaker, so I can't vouch for the use in American English.
add a comment |
its not that ambiguous, as all its meanings refer to bringing something close to the subject (almost: #1) or used to refer closeness to the object (#2 and #3).
1
Well, one means completely, and one means nearly, so I'd say it's ambiguous. I'm sure there are plenty of other examples, though - all part of English's rich tapestry... :-)
– gkrogers
Sep 29 '10 at 7:18
no it means almost complete, or almost whole, while the other means almost there, almost here. So really its only as ambiguous if you choose to see it as such.
– Anonymous Type
Sep 29 '10 at 23:46
add a comment |
Note that you can substitute other words and the perceived ambiguity remains.
Not totally finished.
Totally finished
Totally near.
The word very essentially behaves this way, as well as really:
Not very good (Not necessarily bad, but falls short of being good.)
Very good (Does not fall short of being good. Better than good.)
Very near (Not there, but not far.)
The issue translates into other languages. E.g. Slovak's celkom (celok == the whole part, celkom is a case of this word which literally means by means of the whole part, or on the whole).
celkom hotové (quite ready)
nie celkom hotové (not quite ready)
celkom blízko (quite close)
Since there is evidence that the issue affects more than one word, and can cross languages, that suggests it might be a semantic issue, related to how words which intensify relate to other semantic concepts like completion, noncompletion or proximity.
add a comment |
I think when 'quite' comes before an adjective it always means 90% ~ 99%.
add a comment |
Your Answer
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9 Answers
9
active
oldest
votes
9 Answers
9
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
No, you're not missing anything - the word has ambiguous definitions.
4
Agreed: part of its typically English charm is that the speaker may reserve his true opinion for himself.
– Cerberus
Apr 28 '11 at 12:27
It's all in the inflection, baby
– New Alexandria
Sep 9 '13 at 22:24
add a comment |
No, you're not missing anything - the word has ambiguous definitions.
4
Agreed: part of its typically English charm is that the speaker may reserve his true opinion for himself.
– Cerberus
Apr 28 '11 at 12:27
It's all in the inflection, baby
– New Alexandria
Sep 9 '13 at 22:24
add a comment |
No, you're not missing anything - the word has ambiguous definitions.
No, you're not missing anything - the word has ambiguous definitions.
answered Sep 26 '10 at 7:41
gkrogersgkrogers
1,163911
1,163911
4
Agreed: part of its typically English charm is that the speaker may reserve his true opinion for himself.
– Cerberus
Apr 28 '11 at 12:27
It's all in the inflection, baby
– New Alexandria
Sep 9 '13 at 22:24
add a comment |
4
Agreed: part of its typically English charm is that the speaker may reserve his true opinion for himself.
– Cerberus
Apr 28 '11 at 12:27
It's all in the inflection, baby
– New Alexandria
Sep 9 '13 at 22:24
4
4
Agreed: part of its typically English charm is that the speaker may reserve his true opinion for himself.
– Cerberus
Apr 28 '11 at 12:27
Agreed: part of its typically English charm is that the speaker may reserve his true opinion for himself.
– Cerberus
Apr 28 '11 at 12:27
It's all in the inflection, baby
– New Alexandria
Sep 9 '13 at 22:24
It's all in the inflection, baby
– New Alexandria
Sep 9 '13 at 22:24
add a comment |
When it's used with an absolute, like correct or complete, people generally mean #1 or #2. When someone says, "Quite nice, I'm sure," watch out.
add a comment |
When it's used with an absolute, like correct or complete, people generally mean #1 or #2. When someone says, "Quite nice, I'm sure," watch out.
add a comment |
When it's used with an absolute, like correct or complete, people generally mean #1 or #2. When someone says, "Quite nice, I'm sure," watch out.
When it's used with an absolute, like correct or complete, people generally mean #1 or #2. When someone says, "Quite nice, I'm sure," watch out.
answered Sep 27 '10 at 1:42
moiocimoioci
4,31411414
4,31411414
add a comment |
add a comment |
"Quite!" as in, "Hear, hear!" or "indubitably!"
There is a distinct bias toward the opinion of the speaker with this word usage. It implies "completely" while simultaneously allowing for factual refutation:
"He was quite close to falling off the cliff!"
"On the contrary, he was several feet away from the cliff. He was quite safe from a fall."
"Being so near to the cliff is quite the same as having nearly fallen!"
"Quite so, and yet he was never at risk for having fallen."
In this exchange, the opinion of the first speaker is that the object person was very close.
The respondent begs to differ, asserting the object person was very safe.
The initial speaker counters with a circular reply.
The respondent refutes the reply by agreement.
The term "quite" is not an absolute, it is a conditional that implies conditions nearly identical to certainty, yet lacking certainty.
add a comment |
"Quite!" as in, "Hear, hear!" or "indubitably!"
There is a distinct bias toward the opinion of the speaker with this word usage. It implies "completely" while simultaneously allowing for factual refutation:
"He was quite close to falling off the cliff!"
"On the contrary, he was several feet away from the cliff. He was quite safe from a fall."
"Being so near to the cliff is quite the same as having nearly fallen!"
"Quite so, and yet he was never at risk for having fallen."
In this exchange, the opinion of the first speaker is that the object person was very close.
The respondent begs to differ, asserting the object person was very safe.
The initial speaker counters with a circular reply.
The respondent refutes the reply by agreement.
The term "quite" is not an absolute, it is a conditional that implies conditions nearly identical to certainty, yet lacking certainty.
add a comment |
"Quite!" as in, "Hear, hear!" or "indubitably!"
There is a distinct bias toward the opinion of the speaker with this word usage. It implies "completely" while simultaneously allowing for factual refutation:
"He was quite close to falling off the cliff!"
"On the contrary, he was several feet away from the cliff. He was quite safe from a fall."
"Being so near to the cliff is quite the same as having nearly fallen!"
"Quite so, and yet he was never at risk for having fallen."
In this exchange, the opinion of the first speaker is that the object person was very close.
The respondent begs to differ, asserting the object person was very safe.
The initial speaker counters with a circular reply.
The respondent refutes the reply by agreement.
The term "quite" is not an absolute, it is a conditional that implies conditions nearly identical to certainty, yet lacking certainty.
"Quite!" as in, "Hear, hear!" or "indubitably!"
There is a distinct bias toward the opinion of the speaker with this word usage. It implies "completely" while simultaneously allowing for factual refutation:
"He was quite close to falling off the cliff!"
"On the contrary, he was several feet away from the cliff. He was quite safe from a fall."
"Being so near to the cliff is quite the same as having nearly fallen!"
"Quite so, and yet he was never at risk for having fallen."
In this exchange, the opinion of the first speaker is that the object person was very close.
The respondent begs to differ, asserting the object person was very safe.
The initial speaker counters with a circular reply.
The respondent refutes the reply by agreement.
The term "quite" is not an absolute, it is a conditional that implies conditions nearly identical to certainty, yet lacking certainty.
edited Feb 13 '13 at 3:44
simchona
30.9k5112140
30.9k5112140
answered Feb 13 '13 at 2:23
Michael StevensMichael Stevens
212
212
add a comment |
add a comment |
Many languages have words with more than one meaning and English is no exception. That is without considering tone. English is made more difficult by the geographical spread of the user base leading to words having different meanings in different cultures or locales, including between England and Scotland.
Considered from a standard English English perspective, your examples 1 and 3 give the two meanings normally attributed to the word "quite", however in example 2 you mix both, as "quite sure" would come under example 1, while the others would come under example 3.
add a comment |
Many languages have words with more than one meaning and English is no exception. That is without considering tone. English is made more difficult by the geographical spread of the user base leading to words having different meanings in different cultures or locales, including between England and Scotland.
Considered from a standard English English perspective, your examples 1 and 3 give the two meanings normally attributed to the word "quite", however in example 2 you mix both, as "quite sure" would come under example 1, while the others would come under example 3.
add a comment |
Many languages have words with more than one meaning and English is no exception. That is without considering tone. English is made more difficult by the geographical spread of the user base leading to words having different meanings in different cultures or locales, including between England and Scotland.
Considered from a standard English English perspective, your examples 1 and 3 give the two meanings normally attributed to the word "quite", however in example 2 you mix both, as "quite sure" would come under example 1, while the others would come under example 3.
Many languages have words with more than one meaning and English is no exception. That is without considering tone. English is made more difficult by the geographical spread of the user base leading to words having different meanings in different cultures or locales, including between England and Scotland.
Considered from a standard English English perspective, your examples 1 and 3 give the two meanings normally attributed to the word "quite", however in example 2 you mix both, as "quite sure" would come under example 1, while the others would come under example 3.
answered Oct 6 '10 at 18:22
willy bojit
add a comment |
add a comment |
There is also a dialectal difference. American speakers tend to use it in the first two senses and British and Australian speakers in the third sense. But for both groups, the senses are all available, and stress and intonation might also have a role in deciding which sense is relevant.
I speak a British-style English. If I say that something is 'quite good', my normal meaning of that phrase is 'rather good' or 'somewhat good' (sense 3). However, if I put the stress on quite, it means 'completely good' (sense 1).
If an adjective describing an extreme quality is used with quite, then it can only be used in the first sense: therefore, 'quite exquisite' means 'absolutely exquisite'; 'quite revolting' would usually mean 'absolutely revolting'.
add a comment |
There is also a dialectal difference. American speakers tend to use it in the first two senses and British and Australian speakers in the third sense. But for both groups, the senses are all available, and stress and intonation might also have a role in deciding which sense is relevant.
I speak a British-style English. If I say that something is 'quite good', my normal meaning of that phrase is 'rather good' or 'somewhat good' (sense 3). However, if I put the stress on quite, it means 'completely good' (sense 1).
If an adjective describing an extreme quality is used with quite, then it can only be used in the first sense: therefore, 'quite exquisite' means 'absolutely exquisite'; 'quite revolting' would usually mean 'absolutely revolting'.
add a comment |
There is also a dialectal difference. American speakers tend to use it in the first two senses and British and Australian speakers in the third sense. But for both groups, the senses are all available, and stress and intonation might also have a role in deciding which sense is relevant.
I speak a British-style English. If I say that something is 'quite good', my normal meaning of that phrase is 'rather good' or 'somewhat good' (sense 3). However, if I put the stress on quite, it means 'completely good' (sense 1).
If an adjective describing an extreme quality is used with quite, then it can only be used in the first sense: therefore, 'quite exquisite' means 'absolutely exquisite'; 'quite revolting' would usually mean 'absolutely revolting'.
There is also a dialectal difference. American speakers tend to use it in the first two senses and British and Australian speakers in the third sense. But for both groups, the senses are all available, and stress and intonation might also have a role in deciding which sense is relevant.
I speak a British-style English. If I say that something is 'quite good', my normal meaning of that phrase is 'rather good' or 'somewhat good' (sense 3). However, if I put the stress on quite, it means 'completely good' (sense 1).
If an adjective describing an extreme quality is used with quite, then it can only be used in the first sense: therefore, 'quite exquisite' means 'absolutely exquisite'; 'quite revolting' would usually mean 'absolutely revolting'.
answered Jul 17 '14 at 9:50
PeterPeter
2,371717
2,371717
add a comment |
add a comment |
I've just seen this a post.
I'm involved in writing English courses for speakers of other languages. Our explanation of the different meanings of the adverb "quite" is as follows:
- when followed by a non-gradable adjective (one that cannot be preceded by "very"), quite means "absolutely" (e.g. quite right, quite mad, quite perfect, etc.
- when followed by a gradable adjective, quite means fairly (e.g. quite good, quite warm, etc.
I'm a British English speaker, so I can't vouch for the use in American English.
add a comment |
I've just seen this a post.
I'm involved in writing English courses for speakers of other languages. Our explanation of the different meanings of the adverb "quite" is as follows:
- when followed by a non-gradable adjective (one that cannot be preceded by "very"), quite means "absolutely" (e.g. quite right, quite mad, quite perfect, etc.
- when followed by a gradable adjective, quite means fairly (e.g. quite good, quite warm, etc.
I'm a British English speaker, so I can't vouch for the use in American English.
add a comment |
I've just seen this a post.
I'm involved in writing English courses for speakers of other languages. Our explanation of the different meanings of the adverb "quite" is as follows:
- when followed by a non-gradable adjective (one that cannot be preceded by "very"), quite means "absolutely" (e.g. quite right, quite mad, quite perfect, etc.
- when followed by a gradable adjective, quite means fairly (e.g. quite good, quite warm, etc.
I'm a British English speaker, so I can't vouch for the use in American English.
I've just seen this a post.
I'm involved in writing English courses for speakers of other languages. Our explanation of the different meanings of the adverb "quite" is as follows:
- when followed by a non-gradable adjective (one that cannot be preceded by "very"), quite means "absolutely" (e.g. quite right, quite mad, quite perfect, etc.
- when followed by a gradable adjective, quite means fairly (e.g. quite good, quite warm, etc.
I'm a British English speaker, so I can't vouch for the use in American English.
answered Mar 24 at 13:15
Pam LinwoodPam Linwood
111
111
add a comment |
add a comment |
its not that ambiguous, as all its meanings refer to bringing something close to the subject (almost: #1) or used to refer closeness to the object (#2 and #3).
1
Well, one means completely, and one means nearly, so I'd say it's ambiguous. I'm sure there are plenty of other examples, though - all part of English's rich tapestry... :-)
– gkrogers
Sep 29 '10 at 7:18
no it means almost complete, or almost whole, while the other means almost there, almost here. So really its only as ambiguous if you choose to see it as such.
– Anonymous Type
Sep 29 '10 at 23:46
add a comment |
its not that ambiguous, as all its meanings refer to bringing something close to the subject (almost: #1) or used to refer closeness to the object (#2 and #3).
1
Well, one means completely, and one means nearly, so I'd say it's ambiguous. I'm sure there are plenty of other examples, though - all part of English's rich tapestry... :-)
– gkrogers
Sep 29 '10 at 7:18
no it means almost complete, or almost whole, while the other means almost there, almost here. So really its only as ambiguous if you choose to see it as such.
– Anonymous Type
Sep 29 '10 at 23:46
add a comment |
its not that ambiguous, as all its meanings refer to bringing something close to the subject (almost: #1) or used to refer closeness to the object (#2 and #3).
its not that ambiguous, as all its meanings refer to bringing something close to the subject (almost: #1) or used to refer closeness to the object (#2 and #3).
answered Sep 27 '10 at 0:20
Anonymous TypeAnonymous Type
4382516
4382516
1
Well, one means completely, and one means nearly, so I'd say it's ambiguous. I'm sure there are plenty of other examples, though - all part of English's rich tapestry... :-)
– gkrogers
Sep 29 '10 at 7:18
no it means almost complete, or almost whole, while the other means almost there, almost here. So really its only as ambiguous if you choose to see it as such.
– Anonymous Type
Sep 29 '10 at 23:46
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1
Well, one means completely, and one means nearly, so I'd say it's ambiguous. I'm sure there are plenty of other examples, though - all part of English's rich tapestry... :-)
– gkrogers
Sep 29 '10 at 7:18
no it means almost complete, or almost whole, while the other means almost there, almost here. So really its only as ambiguous if you choose to see it as such.
– Anonymous Type
Sep 29 '10 at 23:46
1
1
Well, one means completely, and one means nearly, so I'd say it's ambiguous. I'm sure there are plenty of other examples, though - all part of English's rich tapestry... :-)
– gkrogers
Sep 29 '10 at 7:18
Well, one means completely, and one means nearly, so I'd say it's ambiguous. I'm sure there are plenty of other examples, though - all part of English's rich tapestry... :-)
– gkrogers
Sep 29 '10 at 7:18
no it means almost complete, or almost whole, while the other means almost there, almost here. So really its only as ambiguous if you choose to see it as such.
– Anonymous Type
Sep 29 '10 at 23:46
no it means almost complete, or almost whole, while the other means almost there, almost here. So really its only as ambiguous if you choose to see it as such.
– Anonymous Type
Sep 29 '10 at 23:46
add a comment |
Note that you can substitute other words and the perceived ambiguity remains.
Not totally finished.
Totally finished
Totally near.
The word very essentially behaves this way, as well as really:
Not very good (Not necessarily bad, but falls short of being good.)
Very good (Does not fall short of being good. Better than good.)
Very near (Not there, but not far.)
The issue translates into other languages. E.g. Slovak's celkom (celok == the whole part, celkom is a case of this word which literally means by means of the whole part, or on the whole).
celkom hotové (quite ready)
nie celkom hotové (not quite ready)
celkom blízko (quite close)
Since there is evidence that the issue affects more than one word, and can cross languages, that suggests it might be a semantic issue, related to how words which intensify relate to other semantic concepts like completion, noncompletion or proximity.
add a comment |
Note that you can substitute other words and the perceived ambiguity remains.
Not totally finished.
Totally finished
Totally near.
The word very essentially behaves this way, as well as really:
Not very good (Not necessarily bad, but falls short of being good.)
Very good (Does not fall short of being good. Better than good.)
Very near (Not there, but not far.)
The issue translates into other languages. E.g. Slovak's celkom (celok == the whole part, celkom is a case of this word which literally means by means of the whole part, or on the whole).
celkom hotové (quite ready)
nie celkom hotové (not quite ready)
celkom blízko (quite close)
Since there is evidence that the issue affects more than one word, and can cross languages, that suggests it might be a semantic issue, related to how words which intensify relate to other semantic concepts like completion, noncompletion or proximity.
add a comment |
Note that you can substitute other words and the perceived ambiguity remains.
Not totally finished.
Totally finished
Totally near.
The word very essentially behaves this way, as well as really:
Not very good (Not necessarily bad, but falls short of being good.)
Very good (Does not fall short of being good. Better than good.)
Very near (Not there, but not far.)
The issue translates into other languages. E.g. Slovak's celkom (celok == the whole part, celkom is a case of this word which literally means by means of the whole part, or on the whole).
celkom hotové (quite ready)
nie celkom hotové (not quite ready)
celkom blízko (quite close)
Since there is evidence that the issue affects more than one word, and can cross languages, that suggests it might be a semantic issue, related to how words which intensify relate to other semantic concepts like completion, noncompletion or proximity.
Note that you can substitute other words and the perceived ambiguity remains.
Not totally finished.
Totally finished
Totally near.
The word very essentially behaves this way, as well as really:
Not very good (Not necessarily bad, but falls short of being good.)
Very good (Does not fall short of being good. Better than good.)
Very near (Not there, but not far.)
The issue translates into other languages. E.g. Slovak's celkom (celok == the whole part, celkom is a case of this word which literally means by means of the whole part, or on the whole).
celkom hotové (quite ready)
nie celkom hotové (not quite ready)
celkom blízko (quite close)
Since there is evidence that the issue affects more than one word, and can cross languages, that suggests it might be a semantic issue, related to how words which intensify relate to other semantic concepts like completion, noncompletion or proximity.
answered Feb 13 '13 at 3:16
KazKaz
4,2571117
4,2571117
add a comment |
add a comment |
I think when 'quite' comes before an adjective it always means 90% ~ 99%.
add a comment |
I think when 'quite' comes before an adjective it always means 90% ~ 99%.
add a comment |
I think when 'quite' comes before an adjective it always means 90% ~ 99%.
I think when 'quite' comes before an adjective it always means 90% ~ 99%.
edited Aug 15 '14 at 8:24
answered Aug 15 '14 at 6:58
PHPstPHPst
215417
215417
add a comment |
add a comment |
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2
"Quite sure" is, in fact, a bit problematic, and it really depends on emphasis to be understood correctly. "I'm quite sure" can mean either "I'm fairly sure" or "I'm absolutely sure". That said, to an American ear I expect using "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure" would sound a bit quaint.
– wyatt
Sep 27 '10 at 2:13
To a different American ear, I would generally expect "quite sure" to mean "absolutely sure," although I would not be surprised to hear it used for "fairly sure".
– Peter Shor
Apr 28 '11 at 13:51