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Can we say or write : “No, it'sn't”?

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11

3

I know we can answer either :

• No, it's not


• No, it isn't

But is it accepted and understandable to write :

No, it'sn't

What about saying it ?

contractions answers

share|improve this question

edited Mar 29 at 16:17

Jasper

20.2k44174

asked Mar 29 at 11:15

J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone

21727

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
  
  – Davo
  Mar 29 at 11:43
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
  
  – alephzero
  Mar 29 at 18:15
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
  
  – chasly from UK
  Mar 29 at 22:39
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  4
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
  
  – A. I. Breveleri
  Mar 30 at 19:05
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
  
  – ruakh
  Mar 31 at 5:10
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

11

3

I know we can answer either :

• No, it's not


• No, it isn't

But is it accepted and understandable to write :

No, it'sn't

What about saying it ?

contractions answers

share|improve this question

edited Mar 29 at 16:17

Jasper

20.2k44174

asked Mar 29 at 11:15

J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone

21727

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
  
  – Davo
  Mar 29 at 11:43
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
  
  – alephzero
  Mar 29 at 18:15
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
  
  – chasly from UK
  Mar 29 at 22:39
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  4
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
  
  – A. I. Breveleri
  Mar 30 at 19:05
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
  
  – ruakh
  Mar 31 at 5:10
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

I know we can answer either :

• No, it's not


• No, it isn't

But is it accepted and understandable to write :

No, it'sn't

What about saying it ?

contractions answers

share|improve this question

edited Mar 29 at 16:17

Jasper

20.2k44174

asked Mar 29 at 11:15

J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone

21727

share|improve this question

edited Mar 29 at 16:17

Jasper

20.2k44174

asked Mar 29 at 11:15

J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone

21727

share|improve this question

edited Mar 29 at 16:17

Jasper

20.2k44174

asked Mar 29 at 11:15

J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone

21727

edited Mar 29 at 16:17

Jasper

20.2k44174

edited Mar 29 at 16:17

Jasper

20.2k44174

asked Mar 29 at 11:15

J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone

21727

asked Mar 29 at 11:15

J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone

21727

4 Answers
4

active

oldest

votes

50

An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be

'tisn't

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 13:22

GranBurguesaGranBurguesa

54643

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
  
  – Spitemaster
  Mar 29 at 15:42
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
  
  – J.Khamphousone
  Mar 29 at 16:42
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  t'isn't is not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
  
  – Michael Harvey
  Mar 29 at 18:15
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
  
  – Spitemaster
  Mar 29 at 19:20
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
  
  – Tim Pederick
  Mar 31 at 1:43
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

13

You are asking if it is acceptable to write:

No, it'sn't

The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.

A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".

Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.

share|improve this answer

edited Mar 29 at 15:48

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

AstralbeeAstralbee

15.7k1756

• 
  
  
  

  
  17
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
  
  – Davo
  Mar 29 at 11:52
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  5
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
  
  – userr2684291
  Mar 29 at 12:42
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  12
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
  
  – Muzer
  Mar 29 at 14:09
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  6
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
  
  – Jason Bassford
  Mar 29 at 14:09
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  "O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
  
  – Monty Harder
  Mar 29 at 17:54
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 12 more comments

6

It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

19.8k12442

add a comment | 

3

'tain't okay.

"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 22:48

JasperJasper

20.2k44174

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  "'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
  
  – Martin Bonner
  Mar 31 at 17:44
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
  
  – Magoo
  Mar 31 at 18:04
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

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50

An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be

'tisn't

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 13:22

GranBurguesaGranBurguesa

54643

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
  
  – Spitemaster
  Mar 29 at 15:42
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
  
  – J.Khamphousone
  Mar 29 at 16:42
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  t'isn't is not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
  
  – Michael Harvey
  Mar 29 at 18:15
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
  
  – Spitemaster
  Mar 29 at 19:20
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
  
  – Tim Pederick
  Mar 31 at 1:43
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

50

An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be

'tisn't

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 13:22

GranBurguesaGranBurguesa

54643

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
  
  – Spitemaster
  Mar 29 at 15:42
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
  
  – J.Khamphousone
  Mar 29 at 16:42
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  t'isn't is not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
  
  – Michael Harvey
  Mar 29 at 18:15
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
  
  – Spitemaster
  Mar 29 at 19:20
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
  
  – Tim Pederick
  Mar 31 at 1:43
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 3 more comments

An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be

'tisn't

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 13:22

GranBurguesaGranBurguesa

54643

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 13:22

GranBurguesaGranBurguesa

54643

answered Mar 29 at 13:22

GranBurguesaGranBurguesa

54643

answered Mar 29 at 13:22

GranBurguesaGranBurguesa

54643

13

You are asking if it is acceptable to write:

No, it'sn't

The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.

A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".

Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.

share|improve this answer

edited Mar 29 at 15:48

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

AstralbeeAstralbee

15.7k1756

• 
  
  
  

  
  17
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
  
  – Davo
  Mar 29 at 11:52
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  5
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
  
  – userr2684291
  Mar 29 at 12:42
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  12
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
  
  – Muzer
  Mar 29 at 14:09
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  6
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
  
  – Jason Bassford
  Mar 29 at 14:09
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  "O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
  
  – Monty Harder
  Mar 29 at 17:54
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 12 more comments

13

You are asking if it is acceptable to write:

No, it'sn't

The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.

A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".

Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.

share|improve this answer

edited Mar 29 at 15:48

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

AstralbeeAstralbee

15.7k1756

• 
  
  
  

  
  17
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
  
  – Davo
  Mar 29 at 11:52
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  5
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
  
  – userr2684291
  Mar 29 at 12:42
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  12
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
  
  – Muzer
  Mar 29 at 14:09
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  6
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
  
  – Jason Bassford
  Mar 29 at 14:09
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  3
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  "O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
  
  – Monty Harder
  Mar 29 at 17:54
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 12 more comments

You are asking if it is acceptable to write:

No, it'sn't

The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.

A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".

Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.

share|improve this answer

edited Mar 29 at 15:48

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

AstralbeeAstralbee

15.7k1756

share|improve this answer

edited Mar 29 at 15:48

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

AstralbeeAstralbee

15.7k1756

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

AstralbeeAstralbee

15.7k1756

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

AstralbeeAstralbee

15.7k1756

6

It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

19.8k12442

add a comment | 

6

It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

19.8k12442

add a comment | 

It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

19.8k12442

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

19.8k12442

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

19.8k12442

answered Mar 29 at 11:19

Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

19.8k12442

3

'tain't okay.

"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.

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answered Mar 29 at 22:48

JasperJasper

20.2k44174

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  "'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
  
  – Martin Bonner
  Mar 31 at 17:44
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
  
  – Magoo
  Mar 31 at 18:04
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

3

'tain't okay.

"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 22:48

JasperJasper

20.2k44174

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  "'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
  
  – Martin Bonner
  Mar 31 at 17:44
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
  
  – Magoo
  Mar 31 at 18:04
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

'tain't okay.

"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 22:48

JasperJasper

20.2k44174

share|improve this answer

answered Mar 29 at 22:48

JasperJasper

20.2k44174

answered Mar 29 at 22:48

JasperJasper

20.2k44174

answered Mar 29 at 22:48

JasperJasper

20.2k44174