Why does the UK parliament need a vote on the political declaration?What would happen if the UK parliment voted through the deal, but blocked the declaration?Will the British Parliament prevent “Brexit”?Why does the UK Parliament still prohibit members from resigning?Why do the leaders of UK political parties need a seat in parliament?What is required to trigger a vote in UK parliament and what makes it ‘binding’?Could the UK Parliament defy the delay on the meaningful vote and simply vote on it?How does “giving way” in the UK parliament work?Does “government” mean something different in British and American English?Could a UK political party place a Three Line Whip on all votes in Parliament?Does the UK parliament need to pass secondary legislation to accept the Article 50 extensionWhat is the difference between Theresa May's Withdrawal Agreement and its associated Political Declaration?
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Why does the UK parliament need a vote on the political declaration?
What would happen if the UK parliment voted through the deal, but blocked the declaration?Will the British Parliament prevent “Brexit”?Why does the UK Parliament still prohibit members from resigning?Why do the leaders of UK political parties need a seat in parliament?What is required to trigger a vote in UK parliament and what makes it ‘binding’?Could the UK Parliament defy the delay on the meaningful vote and simply vote on it?How does “giving way” in the UK parliament work?Does “government” mean something different in British and American English?Could a UK political party place a Three Line Whip on all votes in Parliament?Does the UK parliament need to pass secondary legislation to accept the Article 50 extensionWhat is the difference between Theresa May's Withdrawal Agreement and its associated Political Declaration?
As reported in the bbc article available here: https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-47742395
The UK government has split the 'deal' into the actual agreement and the non-legally binding political declaration - an explanation of which is available here:
https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-46303751
Since it seems more like a statement of intent than anything else, why would the government need parliament to vote on it at all? Couldn't they just get the actual agreement through, then say "You've had your meaningful vote. Deal with it."
united-kingdom brexit parliament
add a comment |
As reported in the bbc article available here: https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-47742395
The UK government has split the 'deal' into the actual agreement and the non-legally binding political declaration - an explanation of which is available here:
https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-46303751
Since it seems more like a statement of intent than anything else, why would the government need parliament to vote on it at all? Couldn't they just get the actual agreement through, then say "You've had your meaningful vote. Deal with it."
united-kingdom brexit parliament
The broader answer is that the whole political system is designed so that no one person has absolute power to make decisions. British history has been directly ruled by the monarch, people didn't like it, there was a civil war. If the leader can make and implement decisions unanimously, the idea of elected representatives is meaningless.
– AJFaraday
Mar 29 at 13:25
add a comment |
As reported in the bbc article available here: https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-47742395
The UK government has split the 'deal' into the actual agreement and the non-legally binding political declaration - an explanation of which is available here:
https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-46303751
Since it seems more like a statement of intent than anything else, why would the government need parliament to vote on it at all? Couldn't they just get the actual agreement through, then say "You've had your meaningful vote. Deal with it."
united-kingdom brexit parliament
As reported in the bbc article available here: https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-47742395
The UK government has split the 'deal' into the actual agreement and the non-legally binding political declaration - an explanation of which is available here:
https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-46303751
Since it seems more like a statement of intent than anything else, why would the government need parliament to vote on it at all? Couldn't they just get the actual agreement through, then say "You've had your meaningful vote. Deal with it."
united-kingdom brexit parliament
united-kingdom brexit parliament
asked Mar 29 at 9:25
DavidDavid
36239
36239
The broader answer is that the whole political system is designed so that no one person has absolute power to make decisions. British history has been directly ruled by the monarch, people didn't like it, there was a civil war. If the leader can make and implement decisions unanimously, the idea of elected representatives is meaningless.
– AJFaraday
Mar 29 at 13:25
add a comment |
The broader answer is that the whole political system is designed so that no one person has absolute power to make decisions. British history has been directly ruled by the monarch, people didn't like it, there was a civil war. If the leader can make and implement decisions unanimously, the idea of elected representatives is meaningless.
– AJFaraday
Mar 29 at 13:25
The broader answer is that the whole political system is designed so that no one person has absolute power to make decisions. British history has been directly ruled by the monarch, people didn't like it, there was a civil war. If the leader can make and implement decisions unanimously, the idea of elected representatives is meaningless.
– AJFaraday
Mar 29 at 13:25
The broader answer is that the whole political system is designed so that no one person has absolute power to make decisions. British history has been directly ruled by the monarch, people didn't like it, there was a civil war. If the leader can make and implement decisions unanimously, the idea of elected representatives is meaningless.
– AJFaraday
Mar 29 at 13:25
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
Because the UK domestic law says so, in section 13 of the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018:
13 Parliamentary approval of the outcome of negotiations with the EU
(1) The withdrawal agreement may be ratified only if—
(a) a Minister of the Crown has laid before each House of Parliament—
(i) a statement that political agreement has been reached,
(ii) a copy of the negotiated withdrawal agreement, and
(iii) a copy of the framework for the future relationship,
(b) the negotiated withdrawal agreement and the framework for the future
relationship have been approved by a resolution of the House of Commons on a motion
moved by a Minister of the Crown,
add a comment |
Article 50, which governs how countries leave the EU, states that in the two years after triggering it the EU will negotiate how that country will leave with consideration given to the future trading relationship.
So the UK tried to include a political declaration about that future relationship.
That failed spectacularly, twice. So now the government is just trying to pass the part that sets up the transition period and trade negotiations, with would technically deliver brexit as the UK would leave the European Union. May has already said she is going and will leave the mess for someone else to clear up, so her focus right now is securing her legacy by being able claim she delivered.
As for the meaningful vote, to avoid a constitutional crisis and further legal action they will have to eventually vote on the future relationship, but that will be somebody else's problem.
Thanks, but I don't understand how this mandates a vote in the UK parliament on the political declaration? I can see how it might mean Europe would need to agree to it (and have done) but I don't see a mechanism by which the PM couldn't pass the actual deal, then tell Parliament to go home. Wasn't the political declaration just a fig leaf to get Parliament to pass the deal in the first place?
– David
Mar 29 at 9:46
@David Gina Miller's legal action and the subsequent legislation created a legal requirement for her to have a meaningful vote on the political declaration.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:45
Yes, I understand, but would that requirement not be fulfilled by voting on the actual deal?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:51
@David It wouldn't because the requirement is on a meaningful vote on the shape of the future relationship. In fact today's vote should be considered a meaningful vote as it does shape that relationship, e.g. the backstop, but the government is trying to make out that it's not.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:57
add a comment |
The Speaker of the House of Commons has said that he won't allow a motion that is substantially the same as a previously defeated motion to be moved by the Government. This is their workaround, splitting it into two motions to be voted on separately.
It may be the case that the government does not need the vote on the political declaration, but they hold the vote anyway as another "advisory" vote. It would certainly look bad that they hold "continuous meaningful votes until one passes" by doing constant fiddles like this.
I understand that, but it still doesn't answer the question - can't Theresa let the deal go through and not have a vote on the declaration at all?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:14
Thanks, so they don't need to hold a vote on the declaration, its just optics? What happens if they pass the deal, but not the declaration? though maybe that's another question
– David
Mar 29 at 10:23
add a comment |
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
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oldest
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votes
Because the UK domestic law says so, in section 13 of the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018:
13 Parliamentary approval of the outcome of negotiations with the EU
(1) The withdrawal agreement may be ratified only if—
(a) a Minister of the Crown has laid before each House of Parliament—
(i) a statement that political agreement has been reached,
(ii) a copy of the negotiated withdrawal agreement, and
(iii) a copy of the framework for the future relationship,
(b) the negotiated withdrawal agreement and the framework for the future
relationship have been approved by a resolution of the House of Commons on a motion
moved by a Minister of the Crown,
add a comment |
Because the UK domestic law says so, in section 13 of the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018:
13 Parliamentary approval of the outcome of negotiations with the EU
(1) The withdrawal agreement may be ratified only if—
(a) a Minister of the Crown has laid before each House of Parliament—
(i) a statement that political agreement has been reached,
(ii) a copy of the negotiated withdrawal agreement, and
(iii) a copy of the framework for the future relationship,
(b) the negotiated withdrawal agreement and the framework for the future
relationship have been approved by a resolution of the House of Commons on a motion
moved by a Minister of the Crown,
add a comment |
Because the UK domestic law says so, in section 13 of the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018:
13 Parliamentary approval of the outcome of negotiations with the EU
(1) The withdrawal agreement may be ratified only if—
(a) a Minister of the Crown has laid before each House of Parliament—
(i) a statement that political agreement has been reached,
(ii) a copy of the negotiated withdrawal agreement, and
(iii) a copy of the framework for the future relationship,
(b) the negotiated withdrawal agreement and the framework for the future
relationship have been approved by a resolution of the House of Commons on a motion
moved by a Minister of the Crown,
Because the UK domestic law says so, in section 13 of the European Union (Withdrawal) Act 2018:
13 Parliamentary approval of the outcome of negotiations with the EU
(1) The withdrawal agreement may be ratified only if—
(a) a Minister of the Crown has laid before each House of Parliament—
(i) a statement that political agreement has been reached,
(ii) a copy of the negotiated withdrawal agreement, and
(iii) a copy of the framework for the future relationship,
(b) the negotiated withdrawal agreement and the framework for the future
relationship have been approved by a resolution of the House of Commons on a motion
moved by a Minister of the Crown,
answered Mar 29 at 12:35
FizzFizz
17.7k244111
17.7k244111
add a comment |
add a comment |
Article 50, which governs how countries leave the EU, states that in the two years after triggering it the EU will negotiate how that country will leave with consideration given to the future trading relationship.
So the UK tried to include a political declaration about that future relationship.
That failed spectacularly, twice. So now the government is just trying to pass the part that sets up the transition period and trade negotiations, with would technically deliver brexit as the UK would leave the European Union. May has already said she is going and will leave the mess for someone else to clear up, so her focus right now is securing her legacy by being able claim she delivered.
As for the meaningful vote, to avoid a constitutional crisis and further legal action they will have to eventually vote on the future relationship, but that will be somebody else's problem.
Thanks, but I don't understand how this mandates a vote in the UK parliament on the political declaration? I can see how it might mean Europe would need to agree to it (and have done) but I don't see a mechanism by which the PM couldn't pass the actual deal, then tell Parliament to go home. Wasn't the political declaration just a fig leaf to get Parliament to pass the deal in the first place?
– David
Mar 29 at 9:46
@David Gina Miller's legal action and the subsequent legislation created a legal requirement for her to have a meaningful vote on the political declaration.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:45
Yes, I understand, but would that requirement not be fulfilled by voting on the actual deal?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:51
@David It wouldn't because the requirement is on a meaningful vote on the shape of the future relationship. In fact today's vote should be considered a meaningful vote as it does shape that relationship, e.g. the backstop, but the government is trying to make out that it's not.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:57
add a comment |
Article 50, which governs how countries leave the EU, states that in the two years after triggering it the EU will negotiate how that country will leave with consideration given to the future trading relationship.
So the UK tried to include a political declaration about that future relationship.
That failed spectacularly, twice. So now the government is just trying to pass the part that sets up the transition period and trade negotiations, with would technically deliver brexit as the UK would leave the European Union. May has already said she is going and will leave the mess for someone else to clear up, so her focus right now is securing her legacy by being able claim she delivered.
As for the meaningful vote, to avoid a constitutional crisis and further legal action they will have to eventually vote on the future relationship, but that will be somebody else's problem.
Thanks, but I don't understand how this mandates a vote in the UK parliament on the political declaration? I can see how it might mean Europe would need to agree to it (and have done) but I don't see a mechanism by which the PM couldn't pass the actual deal, then tell Parliament to go home. Wasn't the political declaration just a fig leaf to get Parliament to pass the deal in the first place?
– David
Mar 29 at 9:46
@David Gina Miller's legal action and the subsequent legislation created a legal requirement for her to have a meaningful vote on the political declaration.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:45
Yes, I understand, but would that requirement not be fulfilled by voting on the actual deal?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:51
@David It wouldn't because the requirement is on a meaningful vote on the shape of the future relationship. In fact today's vote should be considered a meaningful vote as it does shape that relationship, e.g. the backstop, but the government is trying to make out that it's not.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:57
add a comment |
Article 50, which governs how countries leave the EU, states that in the two years after triggering it the EU will negotiate how that country will leave with consideration given to the future trading relationship.
So the UK tried to include a political declaration about that future relationship.
That failed spectacularly, twice. So now the government is just trying to pass the part that sets up the transition period and trade negotiations, with would technically deliver brexit as the UK would leave the European Union. May has already said she is going and will leave the mess for someone else to clear up, so her focus right now is securing her legacy by being able claim she delivered.
As for the meaningful vote, to avoid a constitutional crisis and further legal action they will have to eventually vote on the future relationship, but that will be somebody else's problem.
Article 50, which governs how countries leave the EU, states that in the two years after triggering it the EU will negotiate how that country will leave with consideration given to the future trading relationship.
So the UK tried to include a political declaration about that future relationship.
That failed spectacularly, twice. So now the government is just trying to pass the part that sets up the transition period and trade negotiations, with would technically deliver brexit as the UK would leave the European Union. May has already said she is going and will leave the mess for someone else to clear up, so her focus right now is securing her legacy by being able claim she delivered.
As for the meaningful vote, to avoid a constitutional crisis and further legal action they will have to eventually vote on the future relationship, but that will be somebody else's problem.
answered Mar 29 at 9:37
useruser
11.4k32745
11.4k32745
Thanks, but I don't understand how this mandates a vote in the UK parliament on the political declaration? I can see how it might mean Europe would need to agree to it (and have done) but I don't see a mechanism by which the PM couldn't pass the actual deal, then tell Parliament to go home. Wasn't the political declaration just a fig leaf to get Parliament to pass the deal in the first place?
– David
Mar 29 at 9:46
@David Gina Miller's legal action and the subsequent legislation created a legal requirement for her to have a meaningful vote on the political declaration.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:45
Yes, I understand, but would that requirement not be fulfilled by voting on the actual deal?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:51
@David It wouldn't because the requirement is on a meaningful vote on the shape of the future relationship. In fact today's vote should be considered a meaningful vote as it does shape that relationship, e.g. the backstop, but the government is trying to make out that it's not.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:57
add a comment |
Thanks, but I don't understand how this mandates a vote in the UK parliament on the political declaration? I can see how it might mean Europe would need to agree to it (and have done) but I don't see a mechanism by which the PM couldn't pass the actual deal, then tell Parliament to go home. Wasn't the political declaration just a fig leaf to get Parliament to pass the deal in the first place?
– David
Mar 29 at 9:46
@David Gina Miller's legal action and the subsequent legislation created a legal requirement for her to have a meaningful vote on the political declaration.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:45
Yes, I understand, but would that requirement not be fulfilled by voting on the actual deal?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:51
@David It wouldn't because the requirement is on a meaningful vote on the shape of the future relationship. In fact today's vote should be considered a meaningful vote as it does shape that relationship, e.g. the backstop, but the government is trying to make out that it's not.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:57
Thanks, but I don't understand how this mandates a vote in the UK parliament on the political declaration? I can see how it might mean Europe would need to agree to it (and have done) but I don't see a mechanism by which the PM couldn't pass the actual deal, then tell Parliament to go home. Wasn't the political declaration just a fig leaf to get Parliament to pass the deal in the first place?
– David
Mar 29 at 9:46
Thanks, but I don't understand how this mandates a vote in the UK parliament on the political declaration? I can see how it might mean Europe would need to agree to it (and have done) but I don't see a mechanism by which the PM couldn't pass the actual deal, then tell Parliament to go home. Wasn't the political declaration just a fig leaf to get Parliament to pass the deal in the first place?
– David
Mar 29 at 9:46
@David Gina Miller's legal action and the subsequent legislation created a legal requirement for her to have a meaningful vote on the political declaration.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:45
@David Gina Miller's legal action and the subsequent legislation created a legal requirement for her to have a meaningful vote on the political declaration.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:45
Yes, I understand, but would that requirement not be fulfilled by voting on the actual deal?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:51
Yes, I understand, but would that requirement not be fulfilled by voting on the actual deal?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:51
@David It wouldn't because the requirement is on a meaningful vote on the shape of the future relationship. In fact today's vote should be considered a meaningful vote as it does shape that relationship, e.g. the backstop, but the government is trying to make out that it's not.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:57
@David It wouldn't because the requirement is on a meaningful vote on the shape of the future relationship. In fact today's vote should be considered a meaningful vote as it does shape that relationship, e.g. the backstop, but the government is trying to make out that it's not.
– user
Mar 29 at 10:57
add a comment |
The Speaker of the House of Commons has said that he won't allow a motion that is substantially the same as a previously defeated motion to be moved by the Government. This is their workaround, splitting it into two motions to be voted on separately.
It may be the case that the government does not need the vote on the political declaration, but they hold the vote anyway as another "advisory" vote. It would certainly look bad that they hold "continuous meaningful votes until one passes" by doing constant fiddles like this.
I understand that, but it still doesn't answer the question - can't Theresa let the deal go through and not have a vote on the declaration at all?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:14
Thanks, so they don't need to hold a vote on the declaration, its just optics? What happens if they pass the deal, but not the declaration? though maybe that's another question
– David
Mar 29 at 10:23
add a comment |
The Speaker of the House of Commons has said that he won't allow a motion that is substantially the same as a previously defeated motion to be moved by the Government. This is their workaround, splitting it into two motions to be voted on separately.
It may be the case that the government does not need the vote on the political declaration, but they hold the vote anyway as another "advisory" vote. It would certainly look bad that they hold "continuous meaningful votes until one passes" by doing constant fiddles like this.
I understand that, but it still doesn't answer the question - can't Theresa let the deal go through and not have a vote on the declaration at all?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:14
Thanks, so they don't need to hold a vote on the declaration, its just optics? What happens if they pass the deal, but not the declaration? though maybe that's another question
– David
Mar 29 at 10:23
add a comment |
The Speaker of the House of Commons has said that he won't allow a motion that is substantially the same as a previously defeated motion to be moved by the Government. This is their workaround, splitting it into two motions to be voted on separately.
It may be the case that the government does not need the vote on the political declaration, but they hold the vote anyway as another "advisory" vote. It would certainly look bad that they hold "continuous meaningful votes until one passes" by doing constant fiddles like this.
The Speaker of the House of Commons has said that he won't allow a motion that is substantially the same as a previously defeated motion to be moved by the Government. This is their workaround, splitting it into two motions to be voted on separately.
It may be the case that the government does not need the vote on the political declaration, but they hold the vote anyway as another "advisory" vote. It would certainly look bad that they hold "continuous meaningful votes until one passes" by doing constant fiddles like this.
edited Mar 29 at 10:19
answered Mar 29 at 10:07
CalethCaleth
985511
985511
I understand that, but it still doesn't answer the question - can't Theresa let the deal go through and not have a vote on the declaration at all?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:14
Thanks, so they don't need to hold a vote on the declaration, its just optics? What happens if they pass the deal, but not the declaration? though maybe that's another question
– David
Mar 29 at 10:23
add a comment |
I understand that, but it still doesn't answer the question - can't Theresa let the deal go through and not have a vote on the declaration at all?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:14
Thanks, so they don't need to hold a vote on the declaration, its just optics? What happens if they pass the deal, but not the declaration? though maybe that's another question
– David
Mar 29 at 10:23
I understand that, but it still doesn't answer the question - can't Theresa let the deal go through and not have a vote on the declaration at all?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:14
I understand that, but it still doesn't answer the question - can't Theresa let the deal go through and not have a vote on the declaration at all?
– David
Mar 29 at 10:14
Thanks, so they don't need to hold a vote on the declaration, its just optics? What happens if they pass the deal, but not the declaration? though maybe that's another question
– David
Mar 29 at 10:23
Thanks, so they don't need to hold a vote on the declaration, its just optics? What happens if they pass the deal, but not the declaration? though maybe that's another question
– David
Mar 29 at 10:23
add a comment |
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The broader answer is that the whole political system is designed so that no one person has absolute power to make decisions. British history has been directly ruled by the monarch, people didn't like it, there was a civil war. If the leader can make and implement decisions unanimously, the idea of elected representatives is meaningless.
– AJFaraday
Mar 29 at 13:25