Why does the integral domain “being trapped between a finite field extension” implies that it is a field?












5












$begingroup$


The following is an exercise from Qing Liu's Algebraic Geometry and Arithmetic Curves.




Exercise 1.2.



Let $varphi : A to B$ be a homomorphism of finitely generated algebras over a field. Show that the image of a closed point under $operatorname{Spec} varphi$ is a closed point.




The following is the solution from Cihan Bahran. http://www-users.math.umn.edu/~bahra004/alg-geo/liu-soln.pdf.




Write $k$ for the underlying field. Let’s parse the statement. A closed point in $operatorname{Spec} B$ means a maximal ideal $n$ of $B$. And $operatorname{Spec}(varphi)(n) = varphi^{−1}(n)$. So we want to show that $p := varphi{−1}(n)$ is a maximal ideal in $A$. First of all, $p$ is definitely a prime ideal of $A$ and $varphi$ descends to an injective $k$-algebra homomorphism $ψ : A/p to B/n$. But the map $k to B/n$ defines a finite field extension of $k$ by Corollary 1.12. So the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. Such domains are necessarily fields, thus $p$ is maximal in $A$.




In the second last sentence, the writer says that the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. I don't exactly know what it means, but I think it means that there are two injective ring homomorphisms $f:kto A/p$ and $g:A/pto B/n$ such that $gcirc f$ makes $B/n$ a finite field extension of $k$. But why does it imply that $A/p$ is a field?










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  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is close to being a duplicate of this old thread. But, it is not clear cut, so I won't use my dupehammer privilege to force my opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    yesterday
















5












$begingroup$


The following is an exercise from Qing Liu's Algebraic Geometry and Arithmetic Curves.




Exercise 1.2.



Let $varphi : A to B$ be a homomorphism of finitely generated algebras over a field. Show that the image of a closed point under $operatorname{Spec} varphi$ is a closed point.




The following is the solution from Cihan Bahran. http://www-users.math.umn.edu/~bahra004/alg-geo/liu-soln.pdf.




Write $k$ for the underlying field. Let’s parse the statement. A closed point in $operatorname{Spec} B$ means a maximal ideal $n$ of $B$. And $operatorname{Spec}(varphi)(n) = varphi^{−1}(n)$. So we want to show that $p := varphi{−1}(n)$ is a maximal ideal in $A$. First of all, $p$ is definitely a prime ideal of $A$ and $varphi$ descends to an injective $k$-algebra homomorphism $ψ : A/p to B/n$. But the map $k to B/n$ defines a finite field extension of $k$ by Corollary 1.12. So the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. Such domains are necessarily fields, thus $p$ is maximal in $A$.




In the second last sentence, the writer says that the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. I don't exactly know what it means, but I think it means that there are two injective ring homomorphisms $f:kto A/p$ and $g:A/pto B/n$ such that $gcirc f$ makes $B/n$ a finite field extension of $k$. But why does it imply that $A/p$ is a field?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is close to being a duplicate of this old thread. But, it is not clear cut, so I won't use my dupehammer privilege to force my opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    yesterday














5












5








5


3



$begingroup$


The following is an exercise from Qing Liu's Algebraic Geometry and Arithmetic Curves.




Exercise 1.2.



Let $varphi : A to B$ be a homomorphism of finitely generated algebras over a field. Show that the image of a closed point under $operatorname{Spec} varphi$ is a closed point.




The following is the solution from Cihan Bahran. http://www-users.math.umn.edu/~bahra004/alg-geo/liu-soln.pdf.




Write $k$ for the underlying field. Let’s parse the statement. A closed point in $operatorname{Spec} B$ means a maximal ideal $n$ of $B$. And $operatorname{Spec}(varphi)(n) = varphi^{−1}(n)$. So we want to show that $p := varphi{−1}(n)$ is a maximal ideal in $A$. First of all, $p$ is definitely a prime ideal of $A$ and $varphi$ descends to an injective $k$-algebra homomorphism $ψ : A/p to B/n$. But the map $k to B/n$ defines a finite field extension of $k$ by Corollary 1.12. So the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. Such domains are necessarily fields, thus $p$ is maximal in $A$.




In the second last sentence, the writer says that the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. I don't exactly know what it means, but I think it means that there are two injective ring homomorphisms $f:kto A/p$ and $g:A/pto B/n$ such that $gcirc f$ makes $B/n$ a finite field extension of $k$. But why does it imply that $A/p$ is a field?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The following is an exercise from Qing Liu's Algebraic Geometry and Arithmetic Curves.




Exercise 1.2.



Let $varphi : A to B$ be a homomorphism of finitely generated algebras over a field. Show that the image of a closed point under $operatorname{Spec} varphi$ is a closed point.




The following is the solution from Cihan Bahran. http://www-users.math.umn.edu/~bahra004/alg-geo/liu-soln.pdf.




Write $k$ for the underlying field. Let’s parse the statement. A closed point in $operatorname{Spec} B$ means a maximal ideal $n$ of $B$. And $operatorname{Spec}(varphi)(n) = varphi^{−1}(n)$. So we want to show that $p := varphi{−1}(n)$ is a maximal ideal in $A$. First of all, $p$ is definitely a prime ideal of $A$ and $varphi$ descends to an injective $k$-algebra homomorphism $ψ : A/p to B/n$. But the map $k to B/n$ defines a finite field extension of $k$ by Corollary 1.12. So the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. Such domains are necessarily fields, thus $p$ is maximal in $A$.




In the second last sentence, the writer says that the integral domain $A/p$ is trapped between a finite field extension. I don't exactly know what it means, but I think it means that there are two injective ring homomorphisms $f:kto A/p$ and $g:A/pto B/n$ such that $gcirc f$ makes $B/n$ a finite field extension of $k$. But why does it imply that $A/p$ is a field?







abstract-algebra algebraic-geometry commutative-algebra






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edited 23 hours ago







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  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is close to being a duplicate of this old thread. But, it is not clear cut, so I won't use my dupehammer privilege to force my opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    yesterday














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is close to being a duplicate of this old thread. But, it is not clear cut, so I won't use my dupehammer privilege to force my opinion.
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    yesterday








3




3




$begingroup$
This is close to being a duplicate of this old thread. But, it is not clear cut, so I won't use my dupehammer privilege to force my opinion.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
yesterday




$begingroup$
This is close to being a duplicate of this old thread. But, it is not clear cut, so I won't use my dupehammer privilege to force my opinion.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
yesterday










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















7












$begingroup$


Theorem 1. Let $K$ be a field. Let $R$ and $L$ be two $K$-algebras such that $L$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space and $R$ is an integral domain. Let $g : R to L$ be an injective $K$-linear map. Then, $R$ is a field.




Proof of Theorem 1. Since the $K$-linear map $g : R to L$ is injective, we have $dim R leq dim L$, where "$dim$" refers to the dimension of a $K$-vector space. But $dim L < infty$, since $L$ is finite-dimensional. Hence, $dim R leq dim L < infty$; thus, $R$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space. Therefore, any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (according to a well-known fact from linear algebra).



Now, let $a in R$ be nonzero. Let $M_a$ denote the map $R to R, r mapsto ar$. This map $M_a : R to R$ is $K$-linear and has kernel $0$ (because every $r in R$ satisfying $ar = 0$ must satisfy $r = 0$ (since $R$ is an integral domain and $a$ is nonzero)); thus, it is injective. Hence, it is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (since any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces). Thus, it is surjective. Therefore, there exists some $s in R$ such that $M_aleft(sright) = 1$. Consider this $s$. Now, the definition of $M_a$ yields $M_aleft(sright) = as$, so that $as = M_aleft(sright) = 1$. In other words, $s$ is a (multiplicative) inverse of $a$. Hence, $a$ has an inverse.



We have thus proven that every nonzero $a in R$ has an inverse. In other words, the ring $R$ is an integral domain. This proves Theorem 1. $blacksquare$



In your situation, you should apply Theorem 1 to $K = k$, $R = A/p$, $L = B/n$ and $g = psi$.






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$endgroup$





















    5












    $begingroup$

    Suppose $F$ is any field, $E$ is a finite extension field of $F$, and $D$ is an integral domain such that



    $F subset D subset E; tag 1$



    since



    $[E:F] = n < infty, tag 2$



    every element of $D$ is algebraic over $F$; thus



    $0 ne d in D tag 3$



    satisfies some



    $p(x) in F[x]; tag 4$



    that is,



    $p(d) = 0; tag 5$



    we may write



    $p(x) = displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j x^j, ; p_j in F; tag 6$



    then



    $displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j d^j = p(d) = 0; tag 7$



    furthermore, we may assume $p(x)$ is of minimal degree of all polynomials in $F[x]$ satisfied by $d$. In this case, we must have



    $p_0 ne 0; tag 8$



    if not, then



    $p(x) = displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_jx^j = x sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1}; tag 9$



    thus



    $d displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{10}$



    and via (4) this forces



    $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{11}$



    since $D$ is an integral domain; but this asserts that $d$ satisfies the polynomial



    $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1} in F[x] tag{12}$



    of degree $deg p - 1$, which contradicts the minimality of the degree of $p(x)$; therefore (8) binds and we may write



    $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p}p_j d^j = -p_0, tag{13}$



    or



    $d left( -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} right ) = 1, tag{14}$



    which shows that



    $d^{-1} = -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} in D; tag{15}$



    since every $0 ne d in D$ has in iverse in $D$ by (15), $D$ is indeed a field.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I'm confused about the last step. Why is $p_0^{-1} in D$?
      $endgroup$
      – Vincent
      22 hours ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @Vincent: From (4) and (6), $p_0 in F subset D$; since $F$ is a field, $p_0^{-1} in F subset D$.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Lewis
      16 hours ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      You are right, this is obvious, I was mixing up $F$ and $E$. Thanks for the clarification!
      $endgroup$
      – Vincent
      11 hours ago








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @Vincent: glad to be of service! Cheers!
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Lewis
      11 hours ago











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    7












    $begingroup$


    Theorem 1. Let $K$ be a field. Let $R$ and $L$ be two $K$-algebras such that $L$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space and $R$ is an integral domain. Let $g : R to L$ be an injective $K$-linear map. Then, $R$ is a field.




    Proof of Theorem 1. Since the $K$-linear map $g : R to L$ is injective, we have $dim R leq dim L$, where "$dim$" refers to the dimension of a $K$-vector space. But $dim L < infty$, since $L$ is finite-dimensional. Hence, $dim R leq dim L < infty$; thus, $R$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space. Therefore, any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (according to a well-known fact from linear algebra).



    Now, let $a in R$ be nonzero. Let $M_a$ denote the map $R to R, r mapsto ar$. This map $M_a : R to R$ is $K$-linear and has kernel $0$ (because every $r in R$ satisfying $ar = 0$ must satisfy $r = 0$ (since $R$ is an integral domain and $a$ is nonzero)); thus, it is injective. Hence, it is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (since any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces). Thus, it is surjective. Therefore, there exists some $s in R$ such that $M_aleft(sright) = 1$. Consider this $s$. Now, the definition of $M_a$ yields $M_aleft(sright) = as$, so that $as = M_aleft(sright) = 1$. In other words, $s$ is a (multiplicative) inverse of $a$. Hence, $a$ has an inverse.



    We have thus proven that every nonzero $a in R$ has an inverse. In other words, the ring $R$ is an integral domain. This proves Theorem 1. $blacksquare$



    In your situation, you should apply Theorem 1 to $K = k$, $R = A/p$, $L = B/n$ and $g = psi$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      7












      $begingroup$


      Theorem 1. Let $K$ be a field. Let $R$ and $L$ be two $K$-algebras such that $L$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space and $R$ is an integral domain. Let $g : R to L$ be an injective $K$-linear map. Then, $R$ is a field.




      Proof of Theorem 1. Since the $K$-linear map $g : R to L$ is injective, we have $dim R leq dim L$, where "$dim$" refers to the dimension of a $K$-vector space. But $dim L < infty$, since $L$ is finite-dimensional. Hence, $dim R leq dim L < infty$; thus, $R$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space. Therefore, any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (according to a well-known fact from linear algebra).



      Now, let $a in R$ be nonzero. Let $M_a$ denote the map $R to R, r mapsto ar$. This map $M_a : R to R$ is $K$-linear and has kernel $0$ (because every $r in R$ satisfying $ar = 0$ must satisfy $r = 0$ (since $R$ is an integral domain and $a$ is nonzero)); thus, it is injective. Hence, it is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (since any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces). Thus, it is surjective. Therefore, there exists some $s in R$ such that $M_aleft(sright) = 1$. Consider this $s$. Now, the definition of $M_a$ yields $M_aleft(sright) = as$, so that $as = M_aleft(sright) = 1$. In other words, $s$ is a (multiplicative) inverse of $a$. Hence, $a$ has an inverse.



      We have thus proven that every nonzero $a in R$ has an inverse. In other words, the ring $R$ is an integral domain. This proves Theorem 1. $blacksquare$



      In your situation, you should apply Theorem 1 to $K = k$, $R = A/p$, $L = B/n$ and $g = psi$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        7












        7








        7





        $begingroup$


        Theorem 1. Let $K$ be a field. Let $R$ and $L$ be two $K$-algebras such that $L$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space and $R$ is an integral domain. Let $g : R to L$ be an injective $K$-linear map. Then, $R$ is a field.




        Proof of Theorem 1. Since the $K$-linear map $g : R to L$ is injective, we have $dim R leq dim L$, where "$dim$" refers to the dimension of a $K$-vector space. But $dim L < infty$, since $L$ is finite-dimensional. Hence, $dim R leq dim L < infty$; thus, $R$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space. Therefore, any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (according to a well-known fact from linear algebra).



        Now, let $a in R$ be nonzero. Let $M_a$ denote the map $R to R, r mapsto ar$. This map $M_a : R to R$ is $K$-linear and has kernel $0$ (because every $r in R$ satisfying $ar = 0$ must satisfy $r = 0$ (since $R$ is an integral domain and $a$ is nonzero)); thus, it is injective. Hence, it is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (since any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces). Thus, it is surjective. Therefore, there exists some $s in R$ such that $M_aleft(sright) = 1$. Consider this $s$. Now, the definition of $M_a$ yields $M_aleft(sright) = as$, so that $as = M_aleft(sright) = 1$. In other words, $s$ is a (multiplicative) inverse of $a$. Hence, $a$ has an inverse.



        We have thus proven that every nonzero $a in R$ has an inverse. In other words, the ring $R$ is an integral domain. This proves Theorem 1. $blacksquare$



        In your situation, you should apply Theorem 1 to $K = k$, $R = A/p$, $L = B/n$ and $g = psi$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$




        Theorem 1. Let $K$ be a field. Let $R$ and $L$ be two $K$-algebras such that $L$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space and $R$ is an integral domain. Let $g : R to L$ be an injective $K$-linear map. Then, $R$ is a field.




        Proof of Theorem 1. Since the $K$-linear map $g : R to L$ is injective, we have $dim R leq dim L$, where "$dim$" refers to the dimension of a $K$-vector space. But $dim L < infty$, since $L$ is finite-dimensional. Hence, $dim R leq dim L < infty$; thus, $R$ is a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space. Therefore, any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (according to a well-known fact from linear algebra).



        Now, let $a in R$ be nonzero. Let $M_a$ denote the map $R to R, r mapsto ar$. This map $M_a : R to R$ is $K$-linear and has kernel $0$ (because every $r in R$ satisfying $ar = 0$ must satisfy $r = 0$ (since $R$ is an integral domain and $a$ is nonzero)); thus, it is injective. Hence, it is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces (since any injective $K$-linear map $f : R to R$ is an isomorphism of $K$-vector spaces). Thus, it is surjective. Therefore, there exists some $s in R$ such that $M_aleft(sright) = 1$. Consider this $s$. Now, the definition of $M_a$ yields $M_aleft(sright) = as$, so that $as = M_aleft(sright) = 1$. In other words, $s$ is a (multiplicative) inverse of $a$. Hence, $a$ has an inverse.



        We have thus proven that every nonzero $a in R$ has an inverse. In other words, the ring $R$ is an integral domain. This proves Theorem 1. $blacksquare$



        In your situation, you should apply Theorem 1 to $K = k$, $R = A/p$, $L = B/n$ and $g = psi$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered yesterday









        darij grinbergdarij grinberg

        11.3k33167




        11.3k33167























            5












            $begingroup$

            Suppose $F$ is any field, $E$ is a finite extension field of $F$, and $D$ is an integral domain such that



            $F subset D subset E; tag 1$



            since



            $[E:F] = n < infty, tag 2$



            every element of $D$ is algebraic over $F$; thus



            $0 ne d in D tag 3$



            satisfies some



            $p(x) in F[x]; tag 4$



            that is,



            $p(d) = 0; tag 5$



            we may write



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j x^j, ; p_j in F; tag 6$



            then



            $displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j d^j = p(d) = 0; tag 7$



            furthermore, we may assume $p(x)$ is of minimal degree of all polynomials in $F[x]$ satisfied by $d$. In this case, we must have



            $p_0 ne 0; tag 8$



            if not, then



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_jx^j = x sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1}; tag 9$



            thus



            $d displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{10}$



            and via (4) this forces



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{11}$



            since $D$ is an integral domain; but this asserts that $d$ satisfies the polynomial



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1} in F[x] tag{12}$



            of degree $deg p - 1$, which contradicts the minimality of the degree of $p(x)$; therefore (8) binds and we may write



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p}p_j d^j = -p_0, tag{13}$



            or



            $d left( -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} right ) = 1, tag{14}$



            which shows that



            $d^{-1} = -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} in D; tag{15}$



            since every $0 ne d in D$ has in iverse in $D$ by (15), $D$ is indeed a field.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I'm confused about the last step. Why is $p_0^{-1} in D$?
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              22 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: From (4) and (6), $p_0 in F subset D$; since $F$ is a field, $p_0^{-1} in F subset D$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              16 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              You are right, this is obvious, I was mixing up $F$ and $E$. Thanks for the clarification!
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              11 hours ago








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: glad to be of service! Cheers!
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              11 hours ago
















            5












            $begingroup$

            Suppose $F$ is any field, $E$ is a finite extension field of $F$, and $D$ is an integral domain such that



            $F subset D subset E; tag 1$



            since



            $[E:F] = n < infty, tag 2$



            every element of $D$ is algebraic over $F$; thus



            $0 ne d in D tag 3$



            satisfies some



            $p(x) in F[x]; tag 4$



            that is,



            $p(d) = 0; tag 5$



            we may write



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j x^j, ; p_j in F; tag 6$



            then



            $displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j d^j = p(d) = 0; tag 7$



            furthermore, we may assume $p(x)$ is of minimal degree of all polynomials in $F[x]$ satisfied by $d$. In this case, we must have



            $p_0 ne 0; tag 8$



            if not, then



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_jx^j = x sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1}; tag 9$



            thus



            $d displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{10}$



            and via (4) this forces



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{11}$



            since $D$ is an integral domain; but this asserts that $d$ satisfies the polynomial



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1} in F[x] tag{12}$



            of degree $deg p - 1$, which contradicts the minimality of the degree of $p(x)$; therefore (8) binds and we may write



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p}p_j d^j = -p_0, tag{13}$



            or



            $d left( -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} right ) = 1, tag{14}$



            which shows that



            $d^{-1} = -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} in D; tag{15}$



            since every $0 ne d in D$ has in iverse in $D$ by (15), $D$ is indeed a field.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I'm confused about the last step. Why is $p_0^{-1} in D$?
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              22 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: From (4) and (6), $p_0 in F subset D$; since $F$ is a field, $p_0^{-1} in F subset D$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              16 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              You are right, this is obvious, I was mixing up $F$ and $E$. Thanks for the clarification!
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              11 hours ago








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: glad to be of service! Cheers!
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              11 hours ago














            5












            5








            5





            $begingroup$

            Suppose $F$ is any field, $E$ is a finite extension field of $F$, and $D$ is an integral domain such that



            $F subset D subset E; tag 1$



            since



            $[E:F] = n < infty, tag 2$



            every element of $D$ is algebraic over $F$; thus



            $0 ne d in D tag 3$



            satisfies some



            $p(x) in F[x]; tag 4$



            that is,



            $p(d) = 0; tag 5$



            we may write



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j x^j, ; p_j in F; tag 6$



            then



            $displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j d^j = p(d) = 0; tag 7$



            furthermore, we may assume $p(x)$ is of minimal degree of all polynomials in $F[x]$ satisfied by $d$. In this case, we must have



            $p_0 ne 0; tag 8$



            if not, then



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_jx^j = x sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1}; tag 9$



            thus



            $d displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{10}$



            and via (4) this forces



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{11}$



            since $D$ is an integral domain; but this asserts that $d$ satisfies the polynomial



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1} in F[x] tag{12}$



            of degree $deg p - 1$, which contradicts the minimality of the degree of $p(x)$; therefore (8) binds and we may write



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p}p_j d^j = -p_0, tag{13}$



            or



            $d left( -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} right ) = 1, tag{14}$



            which shows that



            $d^{-1} = -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} in D; tag{15}$



            since every $0 ne d in D$ has in iverse in $D$ by (15), $D$ is indeed a field.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Suppose $F$ is any field, $E$ is a finite extension field of $F$, and $D$ is an integral domain such that



            $F subset D subset E; tag 1$



            since



            $[E:F] = n < infty, tag 2$



            every element of $D$ is algebraic over $F$; thus



            $0 ne d in D tag 3$



            satisfies some



            $p(x) in F[x]; tag 4$



            that is,



            $p(d) = 0; tag 5$



            we may write



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j x^j, ; p_j in F; tag 6$



            then



            $displaystyle sum_0^{deg p} p_j d^j = p(d) = 0; tag 7$



            furthermore, we may assume $p(x)$ is of minimal degree of all polynomials in $F[x]$ satisfied by $d$. In this case, we must have



            $p_0 ne 0; tag 8$



            if not, then



            $p(x) = displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_jx^j = x sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1}; tag 9$



            thus



            $d displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{10}$



            and via (4) this forces



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j - 1} = 0, tag{11}$



            since $D$ is an integral domain; but this asserts that $d$ satisfies the polynomial



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j x^{j - 1} in F[x] tag{12}$



            of degree $deg p - 1$, which contradicts the minimality of the degree of $p(x)$; therefore (8) binds and we may write



            $displaystyle sum_1^{deg p}p_j d^j = -p_0, tag{13}$



            or



            $d left( -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} right ) = 1, tag{14}$



            which shows that



            $d^{-1} = -p_0^{-1}displaystyle sum_1^{deg p} p_j d^{j- 1} in D; tag{15}$



            since every $0 ne d in D$ has in iverse in $D$ by (15), $D$ is indeed a field.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited yesterday

























            answered yesterday









            Robert LewisRobert Lewis

            48.4k23167




            48.4k23167








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I'm confused about the last step. Why is $p_0^{-1} in D$?
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              22 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: From (4) and (6), $p_0 in F subset D$; since $F$ is a field, $p_0^{-1} in F subset D$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              16 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              You are right, this is obvious, I was mixing up $F$ and $E$. Thanks for the clarification!
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              11 hours ago








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: glad to be of service! Cheers!
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              11 hours ago














            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I'm confused about the last step. Why is $p_0^{-1} in D$?
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              22 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: From (4) and (6), $p_0 in F subset D$; since $F$ is a field, $p_0^{-1} in F subset D$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              16 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              You are right, this is obvious, I was mixing up $F$ and $E$. Thanks for the clarification!
              $endgroup$
              – Vincent
              11 hours ago








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Vincent: glad to be of service! Cheers!
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Lewis
              11 hours ago








            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            I'm confused about the last step. Why is $p_0^{-1} in D$?
            $endgroup$
            – Vincent
            22 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            I'm confused about the last step. Why is $p_0^{-1} in D$?
            $endgroup$
            – Vincent
            22 hours ago




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @Vincent: From (4) and (6), $p_0 in F subset D$; since $F$ is a field, $p_0^{-1} in F subset D$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Lewis
            16 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            @Vincent: From (4) and (6), $p_0 in F subset D$; since $F$ is a field, $p_0^{-1} in F subset D$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Lewis
            16 hours ago




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            You are right, this is obvious, I was mixing up $F$ and $E$. Thanks for the clarification!
            $endgroup$
            – Vincent
            11 hours ago






            $begingroup$
            You are right, this is obvious, I was mixing up $F$ and $E$. Thanks for the clarification!
            $endgroup$
            – Vincent
            11 hours ago






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @Vincent: glad to be of service! Cheers!
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Lewis
            11 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            @Vincent: glad to be of service! Cheers!
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Lewis
            11 hours ago


















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