Does “Dominei” mean something?












3















I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.










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    I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.










    share|improve this question







    New contributor




    mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.























      3












      3








      3








      I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.










      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.












      I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.







      meaning






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      mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      asked yesterday









      mariogarccmariogarcc

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          1 Answer
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          Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.



          In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.



          The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.



          However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".



          Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.






          share|improve this answer


























          • Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.

            – Colin Fine
            23 hours ago













          • @ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • @mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!

            – Draconis
            23 hours ago











          Your Answer








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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          5














          Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.



          In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.



          The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.



          However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".



          Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.






          share|improve this answer


























          • Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.

            – Colin Fine
            23 hours ago













          • @ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • @mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!

            – Draconis
            23 hours ago
















          5














          Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.



          In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.



          The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.



          However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".



          Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.






          share|improve this answer


























          • Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.

            – Colin Fine
            23 hours ago













          • @ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • @mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!

            – Draconis
            23 hours ago














          5












          5








          5







          Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.



          In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.



          The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.



          However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".



          Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.






          share|improve this answer















          Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.



          In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.



          The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.



          However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".



          Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited 23 hours ago









          sumelic

          8,11911955




          8,11911955










          answered yesterday









          DraconisDraconis

          17.8k22474




          17.8k22474













          • Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.

            – Colin Fine
            23 hours ago













          • @ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • @mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!

            – Draconis
            23 hours ago



















          • Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.

            – Colin Fine
            23 hours ago













          • @ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.

            – mariogarcc
            23 hours ago













          • @mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!

            – Draconis
            23 hours ago

















          Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.

          – mariogarcc
          23 hours ago







          Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.

          – mariogarcc
          23 hours ago















          Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.

          – Colin Fine
          23 hours ago







          Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.

          – Colin Fine
          23 hours ago















          @ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.

          – mariogarcc
          23 hours ago







          @ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.

          – mariogarcc
          23 hours ago















          @mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!

          – Draconis
          23 hours ago





          @mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!

          – Draconis
          23 hours ago










          mariogarcc is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










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