Is the homomorphism $mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ given by $x mapsto (rho_i(x))_i$ an isomorphism? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Class function as a characterSum of squares of dimensions of irreducible characters.faithful representation related to the centerRepresentation theory and character proof$chi(g)$ group character $Rightarrow$ $chi(g^m)$ group characterOccurrences of trivial representation is equal to dimension of $vin V:varphi(g)v=v$.Why do the characters of an abelian group form a group?characters and representations of extra-special $p$-groupsIf $T$ is an algebraic torus, is there a difference between $operatornameIrr(T)$ and $X(T)$?The ring $R (G)$ in Serre's Linear Representations of Finite Groups
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Is the homomorphism $mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ given by $x mapsto (rho_i(x))_i$ an isomorphism?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Class function as a characterSum of squares of dimensions of irreducible characters.faithful representation related to the centerRepresentation theory and character proof$chi(g)$ group character $Rightarrow$ $chi(g^m)$ group characterOccurrences of trivial representation is equal to dimension of $vin V:varphi(g)v=v$.Why do the characters of an abelian group form a group?characters and representations of extra-special $p$-groupsIf $T$ is an algebraic torus, is there a difference between $operatornameIrr(T)$ and $X(T)$?The ring $R (G)$ in Serre's Linear Representations of Finite Groups
$begingroup$
If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:
$mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$
is an isomorphism?
We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory representation-theory characters
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:
$mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$
is an isomorphism?
We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory representation-theory characters
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:
$mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$
is an isomorphism?
We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory representation-theory characters
$endgroup$
If we have the group algebra $mathbbQG$ and $chi_1,...,chi_n$ the irreducible characters of $G$ afforded by the representation $rho_1,...,rho_n$, is it true that the map:
$mathbbQGto prod M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ sending $xin mathbbQG$ to $(rho_i(x))_i$
is an isomorphism?
We know that $mathbbQG$ can be decomposed into simple algebras, and every simple algebra produces an irreducible character. Can I mix these facts to give a positive answer to the question?
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory representation-theory characters
abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory representation-theory characters
edited Mar 24 at 16:29
Brahadeesh
6,59152465
6,59152465
asked Mar 24 at 14:26
AlopisoAlopiso
1379
1379
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.
In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).
Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 16:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.
If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 15:49
$begingroup$
$mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
$endgroup$
– David Hill
Mar 24 at 16:11
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
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votes
active
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votes
$begingroup$
No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.
In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).
Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 16:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.
In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).
Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 16:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.
In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).
Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).
$endgroup$
No. For a very simple example, let $G$ be cyclic of order 3. Then $G$ has only two irreducible representations over $mathbbQ$: the trivial representation $rho_1$, and the quotient $rho_2$ of the regular representation by the trivial representation (which is an irreducible representation of degree $2$). Your map $mathbbQGto M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ then cannot be surjective, since $mathbbQG$ is $3$-dimensional and $M_1(mathbbQ)times M_2(mathbbQ)$ is $5$-dimensional. What's going on here is that the subring generated by the image of $rho_2$ is not the full matrix ring $M_2(mathbbQ)$; instead it's a $2$-dimensional subring which is isomorphic to the field $mathbbQ(zeta)$ where $zeta$ is a primitive cube root of $1$.
In general, the image of $rho_i$ is a matrix ring over the endomorphism ring $D_i$ of $rho_i$. This endomorphism ring $D_i$ is a division algebra since $rho_i$ is irreducible. If $D_i$ is just $mathbbQ$, then the image of $rho_i$ will be all of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$, but if $D_i$ is larger than $mathbbQ$ then the image of $rho_i$ is a proper subring of $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbQ)$ (namely, the subring of elements that commute with every element of $D_i$).
Your statement would be correct if you were working over $mathbbC$ instead of $mathbbQ$. Over $mathbbC$, there are no finite-dimensional division algebras besides $mathbbC$ itself, so the image of every irreducible representation is the full matrix ring $M_chi_i(1)(mathbbC)$. In general, the Artin-Wedderburn theorem says a semisimple ring is isomorphic to the product of the images of its irreducible representations, which are matrix rings over the endomorphism rings of those representations (and those endomorphism rings are division algebras).
edited Mar 24 at 16:06
answered Mar 24 at 15:52
Eric WofseyEric Wofsey
193k14222353
193k14222353
$begingroup$
Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 16:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 16:08
$begingroup$
Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 16:08
$begingroup$
Thanks for your time, you help me a lot :D
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 16:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.
If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 15:49
$begingroup$
$mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
$endgroup$
– David Hill
Mar 24 at 16:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.
If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 15:49
$begingroup$
$mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
$endgroup$
– David Hill
Mar 24 at 16:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.
If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).
$endgroup$
This is not true. The group algebra of the cyclic group of order three is commutative, and decomposes as $mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQoplusmathbbQ(omega)$, where $omega$ is a primitive third root of unity.
If you replace $mathbbQ$ with $mathbbC$, then the statement is true (in the latter case, $mathbbCC_3cong mathbbCoplusmathbbCoplusmathbbC$).
answered Mar 24 at 15:39
David HillDavid Hill
9,6561619
9,6561619
$begingroup$
Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 15:49
$begingroup$
$mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
$endgroup$
– David Hill
Mar 24 at 16:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 15:49
$begingroup$
$mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
$endgroup$
– David Hill
Mar 24 at 16:11
$begingroup$
Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 15:49
$begingroup$
Why is true for $mathbbQS_3 cong mathbbQoplus mathbbQoplus M_2(mathbbQ)$?
$endgroup$
– Alopiso
Mar 24 at 15:49
$begingroup$
$mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
$endgroup$
– David Hill
Mar 24 at 16:11
$begingroup$
$mathbbQC_3cong mathbbQ[x]/(x^3-1)$
$endgroup$
– David Hill
Mar 24 at 16:11
add a comment |
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