The plural of 'stomach"












12















Words ending in ch usually take es in the plural form. However, the word stomach is an exception to this paradigm. Its plural form is stomachs. My question is, why does it take only s in the plural form?










share|improve this question


















  • 8





    Because English is a very weird and funny language, and never tends to follow the rules most of the times? Yup. :)

    – Bella Swan
    17 hours ago






  • 5





    @BellaSwan Not really. Try to say "branchs" and you'll see why it's "branches"; try to pronounce "stomachs" and then wonder if "stomaches" would rhyme with "headaches".

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago






  • 5





    The rule is not abut spelling but about sound.

    – Mitch
    11 hours ago






  • 2





    Necessary [humorous] poem regarding sound in English The Chaos.

    – Dan
    8 hours ago
















12















Words ending in ch usually take es in the plural form. However, the word stomach is an exception to this paradigm. Its plural form is stomachs. My question is, why does it take only s in the plural form?










share|improve this question


















  • 8





    Because English is a very weird and funny language, and never tends to follow the rules most of the times? Yup. :)

    – Bella Swan
    17 hours ago






  • 5





    @BellaSwan Not really. Try to say "branchs" and you'll see why it's "branches"; try to pronounce "stomachs" and then wonder if "stomaches" would rhyme with "headaches".

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago






  • 5





    The rule is not abut spelling but about sound.

    – Mitch
    11 hours ago






  • 2





    Necessary [humorous] poem regarding sound in English The Chaos.

    – Dan
    8 hours ago














12












12








12


3






Words ending in ch usually take es in the plural form. However, the word stomach is an exception to this paradigm. Its plural form is stomachs. My question is, why does it take only s in the plural form?










share|improve this question














Words ending in ch usually take es in the plural form. However, the word stomach is an exception to this paradigm. Its plural form is stomachs. My question is, why does it take only s in the plural form?







irregular-plurals






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 17 hours ago









Mido MidoMido Mido

579919




579919








  • 8





    Because English is a very weird and funny language, and never tends to follow the rules most of the times? Yup. :)

    – Bella Swan
    17 hours ago






  • 5





    @BellaSwan Not really. Try to say "branchs" and you'll see why it's "branches"; try to pronounce "stomachs" and then wonder if "stomaches" would rhyme with "headaches".

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago






  • 5





    The rule is not abut spelling but about sound.

    – Mitch
    11 hours ago






  • 2





    Necessary [humorous] poem regarding sound in English The Chaos.

    – Dan
    8 hours ago














  • 8





    Because English is a very weird and funny language, and never tends to follow the rules most of the times? Yup. :)

    – Bella Swan
    17 hours ago






  • 5





    @BellaSwan Not really. Try to say "branchs" and you'll see why it's "branches"; try to pronounce "stomachs" and then wonder if "stomaches" would rhyme with "headaches".

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago






  • 5





    The rule is not abut spelling but about sound.

    – Mitch
    11 hours ago






  • 2





    Necessary [humorous] poem regarding sound in English The Chaos.

    – Dan
    8 hours ago








8




8





Because English is a very weird and funny language, and never tends to follow the rules most of the times? Yup. :)

– Bella Swan
17 hours ago





Because English is a very weird and funny language, and never tends to follow the rules most of the times? Yup. :)

– Bella Swan
17 hours ago




5




5





@BellaSwan Not really. Try to say "branchs" and you'll see why it's "branches"; try to pronounce "stomachs" and then wonder if "stomaches" would rhyme with "headaches".

– David Richerby
13 hours ago





@BellaSwan Not really. Try to say "branchs" and you'll see why it's "branches"; try to pronounce "stomachs" and then wonder if "stomaches" would rhyme with "headaches".

– David Richerby
13 hours ago




5




5





The rule is not abut spelling but about sound.

– Mitch
11 hours ago





The rule is not abut spelling but about sound.

– Mitch
11 hours ago




2




2





Necessary [humorous] poem regarding sound in English The Chaos.

– Dan
8 hours ago





Necessary [humorous] poem regarding sound in English The Chaos.

– Dan
8 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















28














The use of the spelling "-ches" in plural forms of words that end in "-ch" is based on the presence of the sound /ɪ/ (or depending on accent, /ə/) in the pronunciation of these plural forms. After the sound /tʃ/, the plural suffix is pronounced as /ɪz/ (or /əz/).



Stomach does not end in the sound /tʃ/: it ends in the sound /k/, and the plural ends in /ks/, with no /ɪ~ə/ sound before the final /s/. This is why it is not spelled with "-es".



Compare the two spellings of the plural of conch that correspond to the two pronunciation variants.



The form /ɪz~əz/ and the spelling "-es" is regularly used after any sibilant consonant sound: /s z ʃ ʒ t͡ʃ d͡ʒ/.






share|improve this answer





















  • 1





    It is usually obvious if a word ends in a sibilant. ch is unusual in the large number of options, resulting from this digraph being used for a range of different purposes in different languages that we have borrowed, and using it in English in different ways for words of different origins. E.g. sandwich is of Norse origin, but loch and quaich are of Scots Gaelic origin. I once looked this rule up in the OED and it said it depended on if the ch was "soft" or "hard". Given the range of possibilities, I looked up these words, but, ironically, it did not define them in this sense!

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago











  • I had seen quaiches and suspected it was wrong. I have just looked it up here /ˈkweɪx/ and here /-eɪx/ and I was very surprised as I have only ever heard /ˈkweɪç/. The extra confusion with the IPA here is that both x and ç are usually used for sibilant sounds, but in IPA they represent non-sibilants. For anyone not familiar with these sounds, /x/ is the ch in Gaelic/Scots loch or German Bach, and /ç/ is what you end up with if you try to pronounce this next to an e or i (quaich, dreich or German ich).

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago



















15














If the -ch is pronounced like 'k', there is no 'e' before a plural final 's'. The lochs of Scotland are beautiful, also the mountains called the Trossachs. In music, there will be no more Bachs. Eunuchs cannot beget monarchs, and also cannot become patriarchs or, probably, the husbands of matriarchs.






share|improve this answer





















  • 3





    We Richerbys aren't convinced that proper nouns are good examples of how plurals work in English. On the other hand, I suspect there won't be any more Shostakoviches, either, so maybe they aren't bad examples in this case.

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago











  • Not only are all these examples proper nouns, they're also none of them English. (Nor is Shostakovich for that matter).

    – Darrel Hoffman
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    Loch is not a proper noun, any more than 'lake', although individual lochs may use the word as part of their name, e.g Loch Ness, and the word is definitely English.

    – Michael Harvey
    9 hours ago











  • It's a borrowed word in English, but it comes from the Irish/Gaelic/Scots word for "lake". Otherwise, what is the difference between a "loch" and a "lake"? The only possible answer is whether it's in Scotland or not.

    – Darrel Hoffman
    9 hours ago











  • They have loughs in Ireland.

    – Michael Harvey
    8 hours ago











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









28














The use of the spelling "-ches" in plural forms of words that end in "-ch" is based on the presence of the sound /ɪ/ (or depending on accent, /ə/) in the pronunciation of these plural forms. After the sound /tʃ/, the plural suffix is pronounced as /ɪz/ (or /əz/).



Stomach does not end in the sound /tʃ/: it ends in the sound /k/, and the plural ends in /ks/, with no /ɪ~ə/ sound before the final /s/. This is why it is not spelled with "-es".



Compare the two spellings of the plural of conch that correspond to the two pronunciation variants.



The form /ɪz~əz/ and the spelling "-es" is regularly used after any sibilant consonant sound: /s z ʃ ʒ t͡ʃ d͡ʒ/.






share|improve this answer





















  • 1





    It is usually obvious if a word ends in a sibilant. ch is unusual in the large number of options, resulting from this digraph being used for a range of different purposes in different languages that we have borrowed, and using it in English in different ways for words of different origins. E.g. sandwich is of Norse origin, but loch and quaich are of Scots Gaelic origin. I once looked this rule up in the OED and it said it depended on if the ch was "soft" or "hard". Given the range of possibilities, I looked up these words, but, ironically, it did not define them in this sense!

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago











  • I had seen quaiches and suspected it was wrong. I have just looked it up here /ˈkweɪx/ and here /-eɪx/ and I was very surprised as I have only ever heard /ˈkweɪç/. The extra confusion with the IPA here is that both x and ç are usually used for sibilant sounds, but in IPA they represent non-sibilants. For anyone not familiar with these sounds, /x/ is the ch in Gaelic/Scots loch or German Bach, and /ç/ is what you end up with if you try to pronounce this next to an e or i (quaich, dreich or German ich).

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago
















28














The use of the spelling "-ches" in plural forms of words that end in "-ch" is based on the presence of the sound /ɪ/ (or depending on accent, /ə/) in the pronunciation of these plural forms. After the sound /tʃ/, the plural suffix is pronounced as /ɪz/ (or /əz/).



Stomach does not end in the sound /tʃ/: it ends in the sound /k/, and the plural ends in /ks/, with no /ɪ~ə/ sound before the final /s/. This is why it is not spelled with "-es".



Compare the two spellings of the plural of conch that correspond to the two pronunciation variants.



The form /ɪz~əz/ and the spelling "-es" is regularly used after any sibilant consonant sound: /s z ʃ ʒ t͡ʃ d͡ʒ/.






share|improve this answer





















  • 1





    It is usually obvious if a word ends in a sibilant. ch is unusual in the large number of options, resulting from this digraph being used for a range of different purposes in different languages that we have borrowed, and using it in English in different ways for words of different origins. E.g. sandwich is of Norse origin, but loch and quaich are of Scots Gaelic origin. I once looked this rule up in the OED and it said it depended on if the ch was "soft" or "hard". Given the range of possibilities, I looked up these words, but, ironically, it did not define them in this sense!

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago











  • I had seen quaiches and suspected it was wrong. I have just looked it up here /ˈkweɪx/ and here /-eɪx/ and I was very surprised as I have only ever heard /ˈkweɪç/. The extra confusion with the IPA here is that both x and ç are usually used for sibilant sounds, but in IPA they represent non-sibilants. For anyone not familiar with these sounds, /x/ is the ch in Gaelic/Scots loch or German Bach, and /ç/ is what you end up with if you try to pronounce this next to an e or i (quaich, dreich or German ich).

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago














28












28








28







The use of the spelling "-ches" in plural forms of words that end in "-ch" is based on the presence of the sound /ɪ/ (or depending on accent, /ə/) in the pronunciation of these plural forms. After the sound /tʃ/, the plural suffix is pronounced as /ɪz/ (or /əz/).



Stomach does not end in the sound /tʃ/: it ends in the sound /k/, and the plural ends in /ks/, with no /ɪ~ə/ sound before the final /s/. This is why it is not spelled with "-es".



Compare the two spellings of the plural of conch that correspond to the two pronunciation variants.



The form /ɪz~əz/ and the spelling "-es" is regularly used after any sibilant consonant sound: /s z ʃ ʒ t͡ʃ d͡ʒ/.






share|improve this answer















The use of the spelling "-ches" in plural forms of words that end in "-ch" is based on the presence of the sound /ɪ/ (or depending on accent, /ə/) in the pronunciation of these plural forms. After the sound /tʃ/, the plural suffix is pronounced as /ɪz/ (or /əz/).



Stomach does not end in the sound /tʃ/: it ends in the sound /k/, and the plural ends in /ks/, with no /ɪ~ə/ sound before the final /s/. This is why it is not spelled with "-es".



Compare the two spellings of the plural of conch that correspond to the two pronunciation variants.



The form /ɪz~əz/ and the spelling "-es" is regularly used after any sibilant consonant sound: /s z ʃ ʒ t͡ʃ d͡ʒ/.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 14 hours ago

























answered 17 hours ago









sumelicsumelic

50.1k8119226




50.1k8119226








  • 1





    It is usually obvious if a word ends in a sibilant. ch is unusual in the large number of options, resulting from this digraph being used for a range of different purposes in different languages that we have borrowed, and using it in English in different ways for words of different origins. E.g. sandwich is of Norse origin, but loch and quaich are of Scots Gaelic origin. I once looked this rule up in the OED and it said it depended on if the ch was "soft" or "hard". Given the range of possibilities, I looked up these words, but, ironically, it did not define them in this sense!

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago











  • I had seen quaiches and suspected it was wrong. I have just looked it up here /ˈkweɪx/ and here /-eɪx/ and I was very surprised as I have only ever heard /ˈkweɪç/. The extra confusion with the IPA here is that both x and ç are usually used for sibilant sounds, but in IPA they represent non-sibilants. For anyone not familiar with these sounds, /x/ is the ch in Gaelic/Scots loch or German Bach, and /ç/ is what you end up with if you try to pronounce this next to an e or i (quaich, dreich or German ich).

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago














  • 1





    It is usually obvious if a word ends in a sibilant. ch is unusual in the large number of options, resulting from this digraph being used for a range of different purposes in different languages that we have borrowed, and using it in English in different ways for words of different origins. E.g. sandwich is of Norse origin, but loch and quaich are of Scots Gaelic origin. I once looked this rule up in the OED and it said it depended on if the ch was "soft" or "hard". Given the range of possibilities, I looked up these words, but, ironically, it did not define them in this sense!

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago











  • I had seen quaiches and suspected it was wrong. I have just looked it up here /ˈkweɪx/ and here /-eɪx/ and I was very surprised as I have only ever heard /ˈkweɪç/. The extra confusion with the IPA here is that both x and ç are usually used for sibilant sounds, but in IPA they represent non-sibilants. For anyone not familiar with these sounds, /x/ is the ch in Gaelic/Scots loch or German Bach, and /ç/ is what you end up with if you try to pronounce this next to an e or i (quaich, dreich or German ich).

    – David Robinson
    13 hours ago








1




1





It is usually obvious if a word ends in a sibilant. ch is unusual in the large number of options, resulting from this digraph being used for a range of different purposes in different languages that we have borrowed, and using it in English in different ways for words of different origins. E.g. sandwich is of Norse origin, but loch and quaich are of Scots Gaelic origin. I once looked this rule up in the OED and it said it depended on if the ch was "soft" or "hard". Given the range of possibilities, I looked up these words, but, ironically, it did not define them in this sense!

– David Robinson
13 hours ago





It is usually obvious if a word ends in a sibilant. ch is unusual in the large number of options, resulting from this digraph being used for a range of different purposes in different languages that we have borrowed, and using it in English in different ways for words of different origins. E.g. sandwich is of Norse origin, but loch and quaich are of Scots Gaelic origin. I once looked this rule up in the OED and it said it depended on if the ch was "soft" or "hard". Given the range of possibilities, I looked up these words, but, ironically, it did not define them in this sense!

– David Robinson
13 hours ago













I had seen quaiches and suspected it was wrong. I have just looked it up here /ˈkweɪx/ and here /-eɪx/ and I was very surprised as I have only ever heard /ˈkweɪç/. The extra confusion with the IPA here is that both x and ç are usually used for sibilant sounds, but in IPA they represent non-sibilants. For anyone not familiar with these sounds, /x/ is the ch in Gaelic/Scots loch or German Bach, and /ç/ is what you end up with if you try to pronounce this next to an e or i (quaich, dreich or German ich).

– David Robinson
13 hours ago





I had seen quaiches and suspected it was wrong. I have just looked it up here /ˈkweɪx/ and here /-eɪx/ and I was very surprised as I have only ever heard /ˈkweɪç/. The extra confusion with the IPA here is that both x and ç are usually used for sibilant sounds, but in IPA they represent non-sibilants. For anyone not familiar with these sounds, /x/ is the ch in Gaelic/Scots loch or German Bach, and /ç/ is what you end up with if you try to pronounce this next to an e or i (quaich, dreich or German ich).

– David Robinson
13 hours ago













15














If the -ch is pronounced like 'k', there is no 'e' before a plural final 's'. The lochs of Scotland are beautiful, also the mountains called the Trossachs. In music, there will be no more Bachs. Eunuchs cannot beget monarchs, and also cannot become patriarchs or, probably, the husbands of matriarchs.






share|improve this answer





















  • 3





    We Richerbys aren't convinced that proper nouns are good examples of how plurals work in English. On the other hand, I suspect there won't be any more Shostakoviches, either, so maybe they aren't bad examples in this case.

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago











  • Not only are all these examples proper nouns, they're also none of them English. (Nor is Shostakovich for that matter).

    – Darrel Hoffman
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    Loch is not a proper noun, any more than 'lake', although individual lochs may use the word as part of their name, e.g Loch Ness, and the word is definitely English.

    – Michael Harvey
    9 hours ago











  • It's a borrowed word in English, but it comes from the Irish/Gaelic/Scots word for "lake". Otherwise, what is the difference between a "loch" and a "lake"? The only possible answer is whether it's in Scotland or not.

    – Darrel Hoffman
    9 hours ago











  • They have loughs in Ireland.

    – Michael Harvey
    8 hours ago
















15














If the -ch is pronounced like 'k', there is no 'e' before a plural final 's'. The lochs of Scotland are beautiful, also the mountains called the Trossachs. In music, there will be no more Bachs. Eunuchs cannot beget monarchs, and also cannot become patriarchs or, probably, the husbands of matriarchs.






share|improve this answer





















  • 3





    We Richerbys aren't convinced that proper nouns are good examples of how plurals work in English. On the other hand, I suspect there won't be any more Shostakoviches, either, so maybe they aren't bad examples in this case.

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago











  • Not only are all these examples proper nouns, they're also none of them English. (Nor is Shostakovich for that matter).

    – Darrel Hoffman
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    Loch is not a proper noun, any more than 'lake', although individual lochs may use the word as part of their name, e.g Loch Ness, and the word is definitely English.

    – Michael Harvey
    9 hours ago











  • It's a borrowed word in English, but it comes from the Irish/Gaelic/Scots word for "lake". Otherwise, what is the difference between a "loch" and a "lake"? The only possible answer is whether it's in Scotland or not.

    – Darrel Hoffman
    9 hours ago











  • They have loughs in Ireland.

    – Michael Harvey
    8 hours ago














15












15








15







If the -ch is pronounced like 'k', there is no 'e' before a plural final 's'. The lochs of Scotland are beautiful, also the mountains called the Trossachs. In music, there will be no more Bachs. Eunuchs cannot beget monarchs, and also cannot become patriarchs or, probably, the husbands of matriarchs.






share|improve this answer















If the -ch is pronounced like 'k', there is no 'e' before a plural final 's'. The lochs of Scotland are beautiful, also the mountains called the Trossachs. In music, there will be no more Bachs. Eunuchs cannot beget monarchs, and also cannot become patriarchs or, probably, the husbands of matriarchs.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 4 hours ago

























answered 17 hours ago









Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

6,53911120




6,53911120








  • 3





    We Richerbys aren't convinced that proper nouns are good examples of how plurals work in English. On the other hand, I suspect there won't be any more Shostakoviches, either, so maybe they aren't bad examples in this case.

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago











  • Not only are all these examples proper nouns, they're also none of them English. (Nor is Shostakovich for that matter).

    – Darrel Hoffman
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    Loch is not a proper noun, any more than 'lake', although individual lochs may use the word as part of their name, e.g Loch Ness, and the word is definitely English.

    – Michael Harvey
    9 hours ago











  • It's a borrowed word in English, but it comes from the Irish/Gaelic/Scots word for "lake". Otherwise, what is the difference between a "loch" and a "lake"? The only possible answer is whether it's in Scotland or not.

    – Darrel Hoffman
    9 hours ago











  • They have loughs in Ireland.

    – Michael Harvey
    8 hours ago














  • 3





    We Richerbys aren't convinced that proper nouns are good examples of how plurals work in English. On the other hand, I suspect there won't be any more Shostakoviches, either, so maybe they aren't bad examples in this case.

    – David Richerby
    13 hours ago











  • Not only are all these examples proper nouns, they're also none of them English. (Nor is Shostakovich for that matter).

    – Darrel Hoffman
    10 hours ago






  • 2





    Loch is not a proper noun, any more than 'lake', although individual lochs may use the word as part of their name, e.g Loch Ness, and the word is definitely English.

    – Michael Harvey
    9 hours ago











  • It's a borrowed word in English, but it comes from the Irish/Gaelic/Scots word for "lake". Otherwise, what is the difference between a "loch" and a "lake"? The only possible answer is whether it's in Scotland or not.

    – Darrel Hoffman
    9 hours ago











  • They have loughs in Ireland.

    – Michael Harvey
    8 hours ago








3




3





We Richerbys aren't convinced that proper nouns are good examples of how plurals work in English. On the other hand, I suspect there won't be any more Shostakoviches, either, so maybe they aren't bad examples in this case.

– David Richerby
13 hours ago





We Richerbys aren't convinced that proper nouns are good examples of how plurals work in English. On the other hand, I suspect there won't be any more Shostakoviches, either, so maybe they aren't bad examples in this case.

– David Richerby
13 hours ago













Not only are all these examples proper nouns, they're also none of them English. (Nor is Shostakovich for that matter).

– Darrel Hoffman
10 hours ago





Not only are all these examples proper nouns, they're also none of them English. (Nor is Shostakovich for that matter).

– Darrel Hoffman
10 hours ago




2




2





Loch is not a proper noun, any more than 'lake', although individual lochs may use the word as part of their name, e.g Loch Ness, and the word is definitely English.

– Michael Harvey
9 hours ago





Loch is not a proper noun, any more than 'lake', although individual lochs may use the word as part of their name, e.g Loch Ness, and the word is definitely English.

– Michael Harvey
9 hours ago













It's a borrowed word in English, but it comes from the Irish/Gaelic/Scots word for "lake". Otherwise, what is the difference between a "loch" and a "lake"? The only possible answer is whether it's in Scotland or not.

– Darrel Hoffman
9 hours ago





It's a borrowed word in English, but it comes from the Irish/Gaelic/Scots word for "lake". Otherwise, what is the difference between a "loch" and a "lake"? The only possible answer is whether it's in Scotland or not.

– Darrel Hoffman
9 hours ago













They have loughs in Ireland.

– Michael Harvey
8 hours ago





They have loughs in Ireland.

– Michael Harvey
8 hours ago


















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