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Subjunctive mood & inversion

Subjunctive moodSubjunctive mood with complex sentencesSubjunctive and conditionalsThe use of "were- should- had” at the beginning of sentences instead of “if”Can “wonder if” be followed by a subjunctive clause only?Subjunctive Mood in Second Conditional - InversionSimple past vs. past subjunctive in 'if' clausesSubjunctive with “and” clauseSubjunctive mood: were or was?Subjunctive Mood/Mode Question

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“Be any person guilty of a crime, the court shall have the right to appeal ”.

My teacher told me that this was a instance of the subjunctive inversion, where “if” and “should” are both omitted. And the original form would be “ if any body should be guilty of a crime, the court shall have the right to appeal”.

What I don’t understand is that is it possible to even omit “ should” in a subjunctive clause, and why the use of “shall”, when it’s clearly not an available option - (would,could, should, might rule).

Can this sentence still be called a subjunctive mood?, or is it just a conditional clause?

grammar subjunctive-mood clauses inversion

share|improve this question

edited Mar 20 at 2:23

Hugh

7,5111937

asked Mar 20 at 2:04

Collivano ChanCollivano Chan

342

New contributor

Collivano Chan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Where did you find this sentence? If it's correct English (this seems doubtful to me), it's probably 200-year-old correct English.
  
  – Peter Shor
  Mar 20 at 2:41
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  My teacher used it as an inversion example for subjucntive mood
  
  – Collivano Chan
  Mar 20 at 7:54
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  It's not a good example. It uses the present subjunctive, which is virtually unknown in conditional statements in modern-day English. They're teaching you 200-year-old grammar. (Maybe not a terrible idea, if they expect you to read 200-year old literature. But they should make that clear.)
  
  – Peter Shor
  Mar 20 at 11:19
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I don't have a problem with the syntax. I have a problem with the semantics. Why would the court appeal? Courts are impartial. Only defendants or prosecutors can appeal. The fact that the sentence is nonsensical (in practical terms) detracts from being able to easily parse the syntax. It would be far better to just remove everything after the comma here. I find nothing unusual about Be any person guilty of a crime . . . (Although I might add there after be.)
  
  – Jason Bassford
  Mar 20 at 15:15
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @Jason: what I found problematic with the semantics was Be any person guilty of ... What it logically should have said was Be any person found guilty of ... How would the court know whether a person is truly guilty or innocent? And if a person is actually guilty, why should anybody consider appealing their sentence?
  
  – Peter Shor
  Mar 20 at 15:31
  
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 2 more comments

0

“Be any person guilty of a crime, the court shall have the right to appeal ”.

My teacher told me that this was a instance of the subjunctive inversion, where “if” and “should” are both omitted. And the original form would be “ if any body should be guilty of a crime, the court shall have the right to appeal”.

What I don’t understand is that is it possible to even omit “ should” in a subjunctive clause, and why the use of “shall”, when it’s clearly not an available option - (would,could, should, might rule).

Can this sentence still be called a subjunctive mood?, or is it just a conditional clause?

grammar subjunctive-mood clauses inversion

share|improve this question

edited Mar 20 at 2:23

Hugh

7,5111937

asked Mar 20 at 2:04

Collivano ChanCollivano Chan

342

New contributor

Collivano Chan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Where did you find this sentence? If it's correct English (this seems doubtful to me), it's probably 200-year-old correct English.
  
  – Peter Shor
  Mar 20 at 2:41
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  My teacher used it as an inversion example for subjucntive mood
  
  – Collivano Chan
  Mar 20 at 7:54
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  It's not a good example. It uses the present subjunctive, which is virtually unknown in conditional statements in modern-day English. They're teaching you 200-year-old grammar. (Maybe not a terrible idea, if they expect you to read 200-year old literature. But they should make that clear.)
  
  – Peter Shor
  Mar 20 at 11:19
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  I don't have a problem with the syntax. I have a problem with the semantics. Why would the court appeal? Courts are impartial. Only defendants or prosecutors can appeal. The fact that the sentence is nonsensical (in practical terms) detracts from being able to easily parse the syntax. It would be far better to just remove everything after the comma here. I find nothing unusual about Be any person guilty of a crime . . . (Although I might add there after be.)
  
  – Jason Bassford
  Mar 20 at 15:15
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @Jason: what I found problematic with the semantics was Be any person guilty of ... What it logically should have said was Be any person found guilty of ... How would the court know whether a person is truly guilty or innocent? And if a person is actually guilty, why should anybody consider appealing their sentence?
  
  – Peter Shor
  Mar 20 at 15:31
  
  

  
  
  
  

 | 
show 2 more comments

“Be any person guilty of a crime, the court shall have the right to appeal ”.

My teacher told me that this was a instance of the subjunctive inversion, where “if” and “should” are both omitted. And the original form would be “ if any body should be guilty of a crime, the court shall have the right to appeal”.

What I don’t understand is that is it possible to even omit “ should” in a subjunctive clause, and why the use of “shall”, when it’s clearly not an available option - (would,could, should, might rule).

Can this sentence still be called a subjunctive mood?, or is it just a conditional clause?

grammar subjunctive-mood clauses inversion

share|improve this question

edited Mar 20 at 2:23

Hugh

7,5111937

asked Mar 20 at 2:04

Collivano ChanCollivano Chan

342

New contributor

Collivano Chan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

share|improve this question

edited Mar 20 at 2:23

Hugh

7,5111937

asked Mar 20 at 2:04

Collivano ChanCollivano Chan

342

New contributor

Collivano Chan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

share|improve this question

edited Mar 20 at 2:23

Hugh

7,5111937

asked Mar 20 at 2:04

Collivano ChanCollivano Chan

342

New contributor

Collivano Chan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

edited Mar 20 at 2:23

Hugh

7,5111937

edited Mar 20 at 2:23

Hugh

7,5111937

asked Mar 20 at 2:04

Collivano ChanCollivano Chan

342

New contributor

Collivano Chan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

asked Mar 20 at 2:04

Collivano ChanCollivano Chan

342