“Since he did” vs “since he had done”
everyone! Could you please help me to choose between these two variants?
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he graduated."
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he had graduated."
verbs tenses
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
add a comment |
everyone! Could you please help me to choose between these two variants?
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he graduated."
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he had graduated."
verbs tenses
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
1
I'd choose 1. as a preference. For some reason the he had seems to make me read the since as its 'because' meaning.
– Orangesandlemons
Mar 17 at 9:01
@Orangesandlemons. Good point!
– Shoe
Mar 17 at 9:10
Orangesandlemons, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:50
add a comment |
everyone! Could you please help me to choose between these two variants?
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he graduated."
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he had graduated."
verbs tenses
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
everyone! Could you please help me to choose between these two variants?
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he graduated."
- "He said he had been working in this laboratory (lab) since he had graduated."
verbs tenses
verbs tenses
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
asked Mar 17 at 6:23
Summer SoulSummer Soul
6
6
1
I'd choose 1. as a preference. For some reason the he had seems to make me read the since as its 'because' meaning.
– Orangesandlemons
Mar 17 at 9:01
@Orangesandlemons. Good point!
– Shoe
Mar 17 at 9:10
Orangesandlemons, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:50
add a comment |
1
I'd choose 1. as a preference. For some reason the he had seems to make me read the since as its 'because' meaning.
– Orangesandlemons
Mar 17 at 9:01
@Orangesandlemons. Good point!
– Shoe
Mar 17 at 9:10
Orangesandlemons, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:50
1
1
I'd choose 1. as a preference. For some reason the he had seems to make me read the since as its 'because' meaning.
– Orangesandlemons
Mar 17 at 9:01
I'd choose 1. as a preference. For some reason the he had seems to make me read the since as its 'because' meaning.
– Orangesandlemons
Mar 17 at 9:01
@Orangesandlemons. Good point!
– Shoe
Mar 17 at 9:10
@Orangesandlemons. Good point!
– Shoe
Mar 17 at 9:10
Orangesandlemons, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:50
Orangesandlemons, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:50
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
The following passage in the section The disappearing past perfect (p51) from The Handbook of Good English by E. Johnson may help you answer your own question:
...more and more often, writers who are generally careful with their
grammar do not bother with the past perfect when the time relationship
is apparent from the context anyway.
Johnson notes that use of the past perfect when other words in the sentence (such as before or after) already 'express the time relationship' is regarded as 'redundant and therefore wrong' by some grammarians.
Johnson himself does not see redundancy as 'an ultimate evil that must be stamped out' but concludes:
...there is perhaps something slightly illogical about indicating time
differences with both an adverb and a tense...Nevertheless, the past
perfect is acceptable and to some ears preferable.
In your sentence 2 you do not need the second past perfect to disambiguate any 'time relationships', so it could be considered redundant.
For what it's worth I have a slight preference for sentence 1, but the choice is yours.
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
Shoe, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:51
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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The following passage in the section The disappearing past perfect (p51) from The Handbook of Good English by E. Johnson may help you answer your own question:
...more and more often, writers who are generally careful with their
grammar do not bother with the past perfect when the time relationship
is apparent from the context anyway.
Johnson notes that use of the past perfect when other words in the sentence (such as before or after) already 'express the time relationship' is regarded as 'redundant and therefore wrong' by some grammarians.
Johnson himself does not see redundancy as 'an ultimate evil that must be stamped out' but concludes:
...there is perhaps something slightly illogical about indicating time
differences with both an adverb and a tense...Nevertheless, the past
perfect is acceptable and to some ears preferable.
In your sentence 2 you do not need the second past perfect to disambiguate any 'time relationships', so it could be considered redundant.
For what it's worth I have a slight preference for sentence 1, but the choice is yours.
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
Shoe, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:51
add a comment |
The following passage in the section The disappearing past perfect (p51) from The Handbook of Good English by E. Johnson may help you answer your own question:
...more and more often, writers who are generally careful with their
grammar do not bother with the past perfect when the time relationship
is apparent from the context anyway.
Johnson notes that use of the past perfect when other words in the sentence (such as before or after) already 'express the time relationship' is regarded as 'redundant and therefore wrong' by some grammarians.
Johnson himself does not see redundancy as 'an ultimate evil that must be stamped out' but concludes:
...there is perhaps something slightly illogical about indicating time
differences with both an adverb and a tense...Nevertheless, the past
perfect is acceptable and to some ears preferable.
In your sentence 2 you do not need the second past perfect to disambiguate any 'time relationships', so it could be considered redundant.
For what it's worth I have a slight preference for sentence 1, but the choice is yours.
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
Shoe, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:51
add a comment |
The following passage in the section The disappearing past perfect (p51) from The Handbook of Good English by E. Johnson may help you answer your own question:
...more and more often, writers who are generally careful with their
grammar do not bother with the past perfect when the time relationship
is apparent from the context anyway.
Johnson notes that use of the past perfect when other words in the sentence (such as before or after) already 'express the time relationship' is regarded as 'redundant and therefore wrong' by some grammarians.
Johnson himself does not see redundancy as 'an ultimate evil that must be stamped out' but concludes:
...there is perhaps something slightly illogical about indicating time
differences with both an adverb and a tense...Nevertheless, the past
perfect is acceptable and to some ears preferable.
In your sentence 2 you do not need the second past perfect to disambiguate any 'time relationships', so it could be considered redundant.
For what it's worth I have a slight preference for sentence 1, but the choice is yours.
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
The following passage in the section The disappearing past perfect (p51) from The Handbook of Good English by E. Johnson may help you answer your own question:
...more and more often, writers who are generally careful with their
grammar do not bother with the past perfect when the time relationship
is apparent from the context anyway.
Johnson notes that use of the past perfect when other words in the sentence (such as before or after) already 'express the time relationship' is regarded as 'redundant and therefore wrong' by some grammarians.
Johnson himself does not see redundancy as 'an ultimate evil that must be stamped out' but concludes:
...there is perhaps something slightly illogical about indicating time
differences with both an adverb and a tense...Nevertheless, the past
perfect is acceptable and to some ears preferable.
In your sentence 2 you do not need the second past perfect to disambiguate any 'time relationships', so it could be considered redundant.
For what it's worth I have a slight preference for sentence 1, but the choice is yours.
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
answered Mar 17 at 9:04
ShoeShoe
25.7k43889
25.7k43889
Shoe, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:51
add a comment |
Shoe, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:51
Shoe, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:51
Shoe, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:51
add a comment |
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1
I'd choose 1. as a preference. For some reason the he had seems to make me read the since as its 'because' meaning.
– Orangesandlemons
Mar 17 at 9:01
@Orangesandlemons. Good point!
– Shoe
Mar 17 at 9:10
Orangesandlemons, thank you very much.
– Summer Soul
Mar 20 at 12:50