Contradiction proof for inequality of P and NP?












10












$begingroup$


I'm trying to argue that N is not equal NP using hierarchy theorems. This is my argument, but when I showed it to our teacher and after deduction, he said that this is problematic where I can't find a compelling reason to accept.




We start off by assuming that $P=NP$. Then it yields that $mathit{SAT} in P$ which itself then follows that $mathit{SAT} in TIME(n^k)$. As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $mathit{SAT}$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$. On the contrary, the time hierarchy theorem states that there should be a language $A in TIME(n^{k+1})$, that's not in $TIME(n^k)$. This would lead us to conclude that $A$ is in $P$, while not in $NP$, which is a contradiction to our first assumption. So, we came to the conclusion that $P neq NP$.




Is there something wrong with my proof?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Please, write something like $mathit{SAT}$ instead of $SAT$. As Leslie Lamport wrote in his original LaTeX book, the latter stands for S times A times T.
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:31












  • $begingroup$
    Better yet, use the complexity package and simply write SAT. (I guess that's not available on this stack, though.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:39










  • $begingroup$
    @Oliphaunt Why not suggest an edit when you can improve the post? Although I must say that here the difference (if any) is a lot more subtle than I'd expect.
    $endgroup$
    – Discrete lizard♦
    Apr 26 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Discretelizard I often do, but it was "too much work" this time (i was / am on mobile). Entering all those $ and is finicky work. I chose to educate instead. (This decision may not have been entirely rational.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 26 at 11:38
















10












$begingroup$


I'm trying to argue that N is not equal NP using hierarchy theorems. This is my argument, but when I showed it to our teacher and after deduction, he said that this is problematic where I can't find a compelling reason to accept.




We start off by assuming that $P=NP$. Then it yields that $mathit{SAT} in P$ which itself then follows that $mathit{SAT} in TIME(n^k)$. As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $mathit{SAT}$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$. On the contrary, the time hierarchy theorem states that there should be a language $A in TIME(n^{k+1})$, that's not in $TIME(n^k)$. This would lead us to conclude that $A$ is in $P$, while not in $NP$, which is a contradiction to our first assumption. So, we came to the conclusion that $P neq NP$.




Is there something wrong with my proof?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Please, write something like $mathit{SAT}$ instead of $SAT$. As Leslie Lamport wrote in his original LaTeX book, the latter stands for S times A times T.
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:31












  • $begingroup$
    Better yet, use the complexity package and simply write SAT. (I guess that's not available on this stack, though.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:39










  • $begingroup$
    @Oliphaunt Why not suggest an edit when you can improve the post? Although I must say that here the difference (if any) is a lot more subtle than I'd expect.
    $endgroup$
    – Discrete lizard♦
    Apr 26 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Discretelizard I often do, but it was "too much work" this time (i was / am on mobile). Entering all those $ and is finicky work. I chose to educate instead. (This decision may not have been entirely rational.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 26 at 11:38














10












10








10


3



$begingroup$


I'm trying to argue that N is not equal NP using hierarchy theorems. This is my argument, but when I showed it to our teacher and after deduction, he said that this is problematic where I can't find a compelling reason to accept.




We start off by assuming that $P=NP$. Then it yields that $mathit{SAT} in P$ which itself then follows that $mathit{SAT} in TIME(n^k)$. As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $mathit{SAT}$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$. On the contrary, the time hierarchy theorem states that there should be a language $A in TIME(n^{k+1})$, that's not in $TIME(n^k)$. This would lead us to conclude that $A$ is in $P$, while not in $NP$, which is a contradiction to our first assumption. So, we came to the conclusion that $P neq NP$.




Is there something wrong with my proof?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm trying to argue that N is not equal NP using hierarchy theorems. This is my argument, but when I showed it to our teacher and after deduction, he said that this is problematic where I can't find a compelling reason to accept.




We start off by assuming that $P=NP$. Then it yields that $mathit{SAT} in P$ which itself then follows that $mathit{SAT} in TIME(n^k)$. As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $mathit{SAT}$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$. On the contrary, the time hierarchy theorem states that there should be a language $A in TIME(n^{k+1})$, that's not in $TIME(n^k)$. This would lead us to conclude that $A$ is in $P$, while not in $NP$, which is a contradiction to our first assumption. So, we came to the conclusion that $P neq NP$.




Is there something wrong with my proof?







complexity-theory time-complexity p-vs-np






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 26 at 7:29









Discrete lizard♦

5,10311642




5,10311642










asked Apr 25 at 4:12









inverted_indexinverted_index

19117




19117








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Please, write something like $mathit{SAT}$ instead of $SAT$. As Leslie Lamport wrote in his original LaTeX book, the latter stands for S times A times T.
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:31












  • $begingroup$
    Better yet, use the complexity package and simply write SAT. (I guess that's not available on this stack, though.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:39










  • $begingroup$
    @Oliphaunt Why not suggest an edit when you can improve the post? Although I must say that here the difference (if any) is a lot more subtle than I'd expect.
    $endgroup$
    – Discrete lizard♦
    Apr 26 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Discretelizard I often do, but it was "too much work" this time (i was / am on mobile). Entering all those $ and is finicky work. I chose to educate instead. (This decision may not have been entirely rational.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 26 at 11:38














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Please, write something like $mathit{SAT}$ instead of $SAT$. As Leslie Lamport wrote in his original LaTeX book, the latter stands for S times A times T.
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:31












  • $begingroup$
    Better yet, use the complexity package and simply write SAT. (I guess that's not available on this stack, though.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 25 at 22:39










  • $begingroup$
    @Oliphaunt Why not suggest an edit when you can improve the post? Although I must say that here the difference (if any) is a lot more subtle than I'd expect.
    $endgroup$
    – Discrete lizard♦
    Apr 26 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Discretelizard I often do, but it was "too much work" this time (i was / am on mobile). Entering all those $ and is finicky work. I chose to educate instead. (This decision may not have been entirely rational.)
    $endgroup$
    – Oliphaunt
    Apr 26 at 11:38








2




2




$begingroup$
Please, write something like $mathit{SAT}$ instead of $SAT$. As Leslie Lamport wrote in his original LaTeX book, the latter stands for S times A times T.
$endgroup$
– Oliphaunt
Apr 25 at 22:31






$begingroup$
Please, write something like $mathit{SAT}$ instead of $SAT$. As Leslie Lamport wrote in his original LaTeX book, the latter stands for S times A times T.
$endgroup$
– Oliphaunt
Apr 25 at 22:31














$begingroup$
Better yet, use the complexity package and simply write SAT. (I guess that's not available on this stack, though.)
$endgroup$
– Oliphaunt
Apr 25 at 22:39




$begingroup$
Better yet, use the complexity package and simply write SAT. (I guess that's not available on this stack, though.)
$endgroup$
– Oliphaunt
Apr 25 at 22:39












$begingroup$
@Oliphaunt Why not suggest an edit when you can improve the post? Although I must say that here the difference (if any) is a lot more subtle than I'd expect.
$endgroup$
– Discrete lizard♦
Apr 26 at 7:29






$begingroup$
@Oliphaunt Why not suggest an edit when you can improve the post? Although I must say that here the difference (if any) is a lot more subtle than I'd expect.
$endgroup$
– Discrete lizard♦
Apr 26 at 7:29






1




1




$begingroup$
@Discretelizard I often do, but it was "too much work" this time (i was / am on mobile). Entering all those $ and is finicky work. I chose to educate instead. (This decision may not have been entirely rational.)
$endgroup$
– Oliphaunt
Apr 26 at 11:38




$begingroup$
@Discretelizard I often do, but it was "too much work" this time (i was / am on mobile). Entering all those $ and is finicky work. I chose to educate instead. (This decision may not have been entirely rational.)
$endgroup$
– Oliphaunt
Apr 26 at 11:38










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















55












$begingroup$


Then it yields that $SAT in P$ which itself then follows that $SAT in TIME(n^k)$.




Sure.




As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $SAT$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$.




No. Polynomial time reductions aren't free. We can say it takes $O(n^{r(L)})$ time to reduce language $L$ to $SAT$, where $r(L)$ is the exponent in the polynomial time reduction used. This is where your argument falls apart. There is no finite $k$ such that for all $L in NP$ we have $r(L) < k$. At least this does not follow from $P = NP$ and would be a much stronger statement.



And this stronger statement does indeed conflict with the time hierarchy theorem, which tells us that $P$ can not collapse into $TIME(n^k)$, let alone all of $NP$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not only the time for the reduction itself. You could reduce to a make larger problem. If I can solve X in O (n^5), and I can reduce a problem in Y in O (n^6) to a O(n^3) sized instance of X, then I need O (n^15) in total.
    $endgroup$
    – gnasher729
    Apr 27 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    Amusingly, this argument applies to PTIME-complete problems as well, e.g. HORNSAT, which is solvable in linear time (but not all problems in P are linear time).
    $endgroup$
    – cody
    Apr 30 at 19:40



















8












$begingroup$

Suppose that $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{NTIME}[n^k]$. By the nondeterministic version of the time hierarchy theorem, for any $r$, there is a problem $X_rinmathrm{NTIME}[n^r]$ that is not in $mathrm{NTIME}[n^{r-1}]$. This is an unconditional result that doesn't depend on any kind of assumption such as $mathrm{P}neqmathrm{NP}$



Choose any $r>k$. Suppose we have a deterministic reduction from $X_r$ to $mathrm{3SAT}$ that runs in time $n^t$. It produces a $mathrm{3SAT}$ instance of size at most $n^t$, which can be solved in time at most $(n^t)^k=n^{tk}$. By our choice of $X_r$, we must have $tk>r-1$, so $t>(r+1)/k$. This function grows without bound with $r$.



This means that there is no bound on how long it can take to reduce an arbitrary $mathrm{NP}$ problem to $mathrm{3SAT}$. Even if $mathrm{3SAT}in mathrm{P}$, there's still no bound on how long those reductions can take. So, in particular, even if $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$ for some $k'$, we can't conclude that $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$, or even $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k''}]$ for some $k''>k'$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














    Your Answer








    StackExchange.ready(function() {
    var channelOptions = {
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "419"
    };
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
    createEditor();
    });
    }
    else {
    createEditor();
    }
    });

    function createEditor() {
    StackExchange.prepareEditor({
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: false,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: null,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader: {
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    },
    onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    });


    }
    });














    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function () {
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fcs.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f108496%2fcontradiction-proof-for-inequality-of-p-and-np%23new-answer', 'question_page');
    }
    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    55












    $begingroup$


    Then it yields that $SAT in P$ which itself then follows that $SAT in TIME(n^k)$.




    Sure.




    As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $SAT$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$.




    No. Polynomial time reductions aren't free. We can say it takes $O(n^{r(L)})$ time to reduce language $L$ to $SAT$, where $r(L)$ is the exponent in the polynomial time reduction used. This is where your argument falls apart. There is no finite $k$ such that for all $L in NP$ we have $r(L) < k$. At least this does not follow from $P = NP$ and would be a much stronger statement.



    And this stronger statement does indeed conflict with the time hierarchy theorem, which tells us that $P$ can not collapse into $TIME(n^k)$, let alone all of $NP$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's not only the time for the reduction itself. You could reduce to a make larger problem. If I can solve X in O (n^5), and I can reduce a problem in Y in O (n^6) to a O(n^3) sized instance of X, then I need O (n^15) in total.
      $endgroup$
      – gnasher729
      Apr 27 at 11:21










    • $begingroup$
      Amusingly, this argument applies to PTIME-complete problems as well, e.g. HORNSAT, which is solvable in linear time (but not all problems in P are linear time).
      $endgroup$
      – cody
      Apr 30 at 19:40
















    55












    $begingroup$


    Then it yields that $SAT in P$ which itself then follows that $SAT in TIME(n^k)$.




    Sure.




    As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $SAT$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$.




    No. Polynomial time reductions aren't free. We can say it takes $O(n^{r(L)})$ time to reduce language $L$ to $SAT$, where $r(L)$ is the exponent in the polynomial time reduction used. This is where your argument falls apart. There is no finite $k$ such that for all $L in NP$ we have $r(L) < k$. At least this does not follow from $P = NP$ and would be a much stronger statement.



    And this stronger statement does indeed conflict with the time hierarchy theorem, which tells us that $P$ can not collapse into $TIME(n^k)$, let alone all of $NP$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's not only the time for the reduction itself. You could reduce to a make larger problem. If I can solve X in O (n^5), and I can reduce a problem in Y in O (n^6) to a O(n^3) sized instance of X, then I need O (n^15) in total.
      $endgroup$
      – gnasher729
      Apr 27 at 11:21










    • $begingroup$
      Amusingly, this argument applies to PTIME-complete problems as well, e.g. HORNSAT, which is solvable in linear time (but not all problems in P are linear time).
      $endgroup$
      – cody
      Apr 30 at 19:40














    55












    55








    55





    $begingroup$


    Then it yields that $SAT in P$ which itself then follows that $SAT in TIME(n^k)$.




    Sure.




    As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $SAT$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$.




    No. Polynomial time reductions aren't free. We can say it takes $O(n^{r(L)})$ time to reduce language $L$ to $SAT$, where $r(L)$ is the exponent in the polynomial time reduction used. This is where your argument falls apart. There is no finite $k$ such that for all $L in NP$ we have $r(L) < k$. At least this does not follow from $P = NP$ and would be a much stronger statement.



    And this stronger statement does indeed conflict with the time hierarchy theorem, which tells us that $P$ can not collapse into $TIME(n^k)$, let alone all of $NP$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$




    Then it yields that $SAT in P$ which itself then follows that $SAT in TIME(n^k)$.




    Sure.




    As stands, we are able to do reduce every language in $NP$ to $SAT$. Therefore, $NP subseteq TIME(n^k)$.




    No. Polynomial time reductions aren't free. We can say it takes $O(n^{r(L)})$ time to reduce language $L$ to $SAT$, where $r(L)$ is the exponent in the polynomial time reduction used. This is where your argument falls apart. There is no finite $k$ such that for all $L in NP$ we have $r(L) < k$. At least this does not follow from $P = NP$ and would be a much stronger statement.



    And this stronger statement does indeed conflict with the time hierarchy theorem, which tells us that $P$ can not collapse into $TIME(n^k)$, let alone all of $NP$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Apr 25 at 5:49

























    answered Apr 25 at 4:38









    orlporlp

    6,51011128




    6,51011128








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's not only the time for the reduction itself. You could reduce to a make larger problem. If I can solve X in O (n^5), and I can reduce a problem in Y in O (n^6) to a O(n^3) sized instance of X, then I need O (n^15) in total.
      $endgroup$
      – gnasher729
      Apr 27 at 11:21










    • $begingroup$
      Amusingly, this argument applies to PTIME-complete problems as well, e.g. HORNSAT, which is solvable in linear time (but not all problems in P are linear time).
      $endgroup$
      – cody
      Apr 30 at 19:40














    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It's not only the time for the reduction itself. You could reduce to a make larger problem. If I can solve X in O (n^5), and I can reduce a problem in Y in O (n^6) to a O(n^3) sized instance of X, then I need O (n^15) in total.
      $endgroup$
      – gnasher729
      Apr 27 at 11:21










    • $begingroup$
      Amusingly, this argument applies to PTIME-complete problems as well, e.g. HORNSAT, which is solvable in linear time (but not all problems in P are linear time).
      $endgroup$
      – cody
      Apr 30 at 19:40








    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    It's not only the time for the reduction itself. You could reduce to a make larger problem. If I can solve X in O (n^5), and I can reduce a problem in Y in O (n^6) to a O(n^3) sized instance of X, then I need O (n^15) in total.
    $endgroup$
    – gnasher729
    Apr 27 at 11:21




    $begingroup$
    It's not only the time for the reduction itself. You could reduce to a make larger problem. If I can solve X in O (n^5), and I can reduce a problem in Y in O (n^6) to a O(n^3) sized instance of X, then I need O (n^15) in total.
    $endgroup$
    – gnasher729
    Apr 27 at 11:21












    $begingroup$
    Amusingly, this argument applies to PTIME-complete problems as well, e.g. HORNSAT, which is solvable in linear time (but not all problems in P are linear time).
    $endgroup$
    – cody
    Apr 30 at 19:40




    $begingroup$
    Amusingly, this argument applies to PTIME-complete problems as well, e.g. HORNSAT, which is solvable in linear time (but not all problems in P are linear time).
    $endgroup$
    – cody
    Apr 30 at 19:40











    8












    $begingroup$

    Suppose that $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{NTIME}[n^k]$. By the nondeterministic version of the time hierarchy theorem, for any $r$, there is a problem $X_rinmathrm{NTIME}[n^r]$ that is not in $mathrm{NTIME}[n^{r-1}]$. This is an unconditional result that doesn't depend on any kind of assumption such as $mathrm{P}neqmathrm{NP}$



    Choose any $r>k$. Suppose we have a deterministic reduction from $X_r$ to $mathrm{3SAT}$ that runs in time $n^t$. It produces a $mathrm{3SAT}$ instance of size at most $n^t$, which can be solved in time at most $(n^t)^k=n^{tk}$. By our choice of $X_r$, we must have $tk>r-1$, so $t>(r+1)/k$. This function grows without bound with $r$.



    This means that there is no bound on how long it can take to reduce an arbitrary $mathrm{NP}$ problem to $mathrm{3SAT}$. Even if $mathrm{3SAT}in mathrm{P}$, there's still no bound on how long those reductions can take. So, in particular, even if $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$ for some $k'$, we can't conclude that $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$, or even $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k''}]$ for some $k''>k'$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      8












      $begingroup$

      Suppose that $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{NTIME}[n^k]$. By the nondeterministic version of the time hierarchy theorem, for any $r$, there is a problem $X_rinmathrm{NTIME}[n^r]$ that is not in $mathrm{NTIME}[n^{r-1}]$. This is an unconditional result that doesn't depend on any kind of assumption such as $mathrm{P}neqmathrm{NP}$



      Choose any $r>k$. Suppose we have a deterministic reduction from $X_r$ to $mathrm{3SAT}$ that runs in time $n^t$. It produces a $mathrm{3SAT}$ instance of size at most $n^t$, which can be solved in time at most $(n^t)^k=n^{tk}$. By our choice of $X_r$, we must have $tk>r-1$, so $t>(r+1)/k$. This function grows without bound with $r$.



      This means that there is no bound on how long it can take to reduce an arbitrary $mathrm{NP}$ problem to $mathrm{3SAT}$. Even if $mathrm{3SAT}in mathrm{P}$, there's still no bound on how long those reductions can take. So, in particular, even if $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$ for some $k'$, we can't conclude that $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$, or even $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k''}]$ for some $k''>k'$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        8












        8








        8





        $begingroup$

        Suppose that $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{NTIME}[n^k]$. By the nondeterministic version of the time hierarchy theorem, for any $r$, there is a problem $X_rinmathrm{NTIME}[n^r]$ that is not in $mathrm{NTIME}[n^{r-1}]$. This is an unconditional result that doesn't depend on any kind of assumption such as $mathrm{P}neqmathrm{NP}$



        Choose any $r>k$. Suppose we have a deterministic reduction from $X_r$ to $mathrm{3SAT}$ that runs in time $n^t$. It produces a $mathrm{3SAT}$ instance of size at most $n^t$, which can be solved in time at most $(n^t)^k=n^{tk}$. By our choice of $X_r$, we must have $tk>r-1$, so $t>(r+1)/k$. This function grows without bound with $r$.



        This means that there is no bound on how long it can take to reduce an arbitrary $mathrm{NP}$ problem to $mathrm{3SAT}$. Even if $mathrm{3SAT}in mathrm{P}$, there's still no bound on how long those reductions can take. So, in particular, even if $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$ for some $k'$, we can't conclude that $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$, or even $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k''}]$ for some $k''>k'$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Suppose that $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{NTIME}[n^k]$. By the nondeterministic version of the time hierarchy theorem, for any $r$, there is a problem $X_rinmathrm{NTIME}[n^r]$ that is not in $mathrm{NTIME}[n^{r-1}]$. This is an unconditional result that doesn't depend on any kind of assumption such as $mathrm{P}neqmathrm{NP}$



        Choose any $r>k$. Suppose we have a deterministic reduction from $X_r$ to $mathrm{3SAT}$ that runs in time $n^t$. It produces a $mathrm{3SAT}$ instance of size at most $n^t$, which can be solved in time at most $(n^t)^k=n^{tk}$. By our choice of $X_r$, we must have $tk>r-1$, so $t>(r+1)/k$. This function grows without bound with $r$.



        This means that there is no bound on how long it can take to reduce an arbitrary $mathrm{NP}$ problem to $mathrm{3SAT}$. Even if $mathrm{3SAT}in mathrm{P}$, there's still no bound on how long those reductions can take. So, in particular, even if $mathrm{3SAT}inmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$ for some $k'$, we can't conclude that $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k'}]$, or even $mathrm{NP}subseteqmathrm{DTIME}[n^{k''}]$ for some $k''>k'$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Apr 25 at 14:58









        David RicherbyDavid Richerby

        72.2k16111201




        72.2k16111201






























            draft saved

            draft discarded




















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Computer Science Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid …



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fcs.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f108496%2fcontradiction-proof-for-inequality-of-p-and-np%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            Bruad Bilen | Luke uk diar | NawigatsjuunCommonskategorii: BruadCommonskategorii: RunstükenWikiquote: Bruad

            Modern approach to radio buttons

            A word for worn pool table felt