Interpretation “has been entered”
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I am having a hard time interpreting a specific phrase.
The phrase is "A judgement has been entered."
If a judgement was previously entered, and it was then removed. Would the "has been entered," be the correct tense, or should it be "had been entered." In other words, does "has been entered" imply that the judgement is still entered today, or could it simply just imply that it was entered at one point in the past, not necessarily today?
grammar legalese
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
add a comment |
I am having a hard time interpreting a specific phrase.
The phrase is "A judgement has been entered."
If a judgement was previously entered, and it was then removed. Would the "has been entered," be the correct tense, or should it be "had been entered." In other words, does "has been entered" imply that the judgement is still entered today, or could it simply just imply that it was entered at one point in the past, not necessarily today?
grammar legalese
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
add a comment |
I am having a hard time interpreting a specific phrase.
The phrase is "A judgement has been entered."
If a judgement was previously entered, and it was then removed. Would the "has been entered," be the correct tense, or should it be "had been entered." In other words, does "has been entered" imply that the judgement is still entered today, or could it simply just imply that it was entered at one point in the past, not necessarily today?
grammar legalese
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
I am having a hard time interpreting a specific phrase.
The phrase is "A judgement has been entered."
If a judgement was previously entered, and it was then removed. Would the "has been entered," be the correct tense, or should it be "had been entered." In other words, does "has been entered" imply that the judgement is still entered today, or could it simply just imply that it was entered at one point in the past, not necessarily today?
grammar legalese
grammar legalese
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
edited Apr 18 at 16:00
Paul
1859
1859
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
asked Apr 18 at 14:46
IamanonIamanon
1
1
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
The phrase "a judgement has been entered" comes from the fact that the judgement document is entered into the legal records, such as a docket sheet or record of proceedings. If a judgement is later superseded by a second judgment, the first judgement is not "removed" from any sense; its record remains, absent extraordinary circumstances. So such a judgement is still "entered," but it is no longer in effect.
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
Yes, however, in this case, the first judgement was withdrawn. There was no other judgement.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:02
Do you know why it was withdrawn?
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:06
I'm not too sure. It's not for me. But it looks like it was some temporary judgement that was entered with the condition that if some requirements are fulfilled, it would be later withdrawn.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:21
Okay. Withdrawn is probably a better word than removed. "Had been entered" would be the better phrase, since it denotes a past act that is before another past act.
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:32
Right I think so too. So in this case, would "has been entered" technically be erroneous? Idk if interpretations in the legal field would make this kind of distinction.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:41
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
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votes
The phrase "a judgement has been entered" comes from the fact that the judgement document is entered into the legal records, such as a docket sheet or record of proceedings. If a judgement is later superseded by a second judgment, the first judgement is not "removed" from any sense; its record remains, absent extraordinary circumstances. So such a judgement is still "entered," but it is no longer in effect.
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
Yes, however, in this case, the first judgement was withdrawn. There was no other judgement.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:02
Do you know why it was withdrawn?
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:06
I'm not too sure. It's not for me. But it looks like it was some temporary judgement that was entered with the condition that if some requirements are fulfilled, it would be later withdrawn.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:21
Okay. Withdrawn is probably a better word than removed. "Had been entered" would be the better phrase, since it denotes a past act that is before another past act.
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:32
Right I think so too. So in this case, would "has been entered" technically be erroneous? Idk if interpretations in the legal field would make this kind of distinction.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:41
add a comment |
The phrase "a judgement has been entered" comes from the fact that the judgement document is entered into the legal records, such as a docket sheet or record of proceedings. If a judgement is later superseded by a second judgment, the first judgement is not "removed" from any sense; its record remains, absent extraordinary circumstances. So such a judgement is still "entered," but it is no longer in effect.
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
Yes, however, in this case, the first judgement was withdrawn. There was no other judgement.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:02
Do you know why it was withdrawn?
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:06
I'm not too sure. It's not for me. But it looks like it was some temporary judgement that was entered with the condition that if some requirements are fulfilled, it would be later withdrawn.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:21
Okay. Withdrawn is probably a better word than removed. "Had been entered" would be the better phrase, since it denotes a past act that is before another past act.
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:32
Right I think so too. So in this case, would "has been entered" technically be erroneous? Idk if interpretations in the legal field would make this kind of distinction.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:41
add a comment |
The phrase "a judgement has been entered" comes from the fact that the judgement document is entered into the legal records, such as a docket sheet or record of proceedings. If a judgement is later superseded by a second judgment, the first judgement is not "removed" from any sense; its record remains, absent extraordinary circumstances. So such a judgement is still "entered," but it is no longer in effect.
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
The phrase "a judgement has been entered" comes from the fact that the judgement document is entered into the legal records, such as a docket sheet or record of proceedings. If a judgement is later superseded by a second judgment, the first judgement is not "removed" from any sense; its record remains, absent extraordinary circumstances. So such a judgement is still "entered," but it is no longer in effect.
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
answered Apr 18 at 14:58
PaulPaul
1859
1859
Yes, however, in this case, the first judgement was withdrawn. There was no other judgement.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:02
Do you know why it was withdrawn?
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:06
I'm not too sure. It's not for me. But it looks like it was some temporary judgement that was entered with the condition that if some requirements are fulfilled, it would be later withdrawn.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:21
Okay. Withdrawn is probably a better word than removed. "Had been entered" would be the better phrase, since it denotes a past act that is before another past act.
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:32
Right I think so too. So in this case, would "has been entered" technically be erroneous? Idk if interpretations in the legal field would make this kind of distinction.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:41
add a comment |
Yes, however, in this case, the first judgement was withdrawn. There was no other judgement.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:02
Do you know why it was withdrawn?
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:06
I'm not too sure. It's not for me. But it looks like it was some temporary judgement that was entered with the condition that if some requirements are fulfilled, it would be later withdrawn.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:21
Okay. Withdrawn is probably a better word than removed. "Had been entered" would be the better phrase, since it denotes a past act that is before another past act.
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:32
Right I think so too. So in this case, would "has been entered" technically be erroneous? Idk if interpretations in the legal field would make this kind of distinction.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:41
Yes, however, in this case, the first judgement was withdrawn. There was no other judgement.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:02
Yes, however, in this case, the first judgement was withdrawn. There was no other judgement.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:02
Do you know why it was withdrawn?
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:06
Do you know why it was withdrawn?
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:06
I'm not too sure. It's not for me. But it looks like it was some temporary judgement that was entered with the condition that if some requirements are fulfilled, it would be later withdrawn.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:21
I'm not too sure. It's not for me. But it looks like it was some temporary judgement that was entered with the condition that if some requirements are fulfilled, it would be later withdrawn.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:21
Okay. Withdrawn is probably a better word than removed. "Had been entered" would be the better phrase, since it denotes a past act that is before another past act.
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:32
Okay. Withdrawn is probably a better word than removed. "Had been entered" would be the better phrase, since it denotes a past act that is before another past act.
– Paul
Apr 18 at 15:32
Right I think so too. So in this case, would "has been entered" technically be erroneous? Idk if interpretations in the legal field would make this kind of distinction.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:41
Right I think so too. So in this case, would "has been entered" technically be erroneous? Idk if interpretations in the legal field would make this kind of distinction.
– Iamanon
Apr 18 at 15:41
add a comment |
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