What is the difference between “behavior” and “behaviour”? Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Contributor's Guide to English Language LearnersIs there any difference between these two sentences?What is the real or main difference between English and American speaking?What is the different between change and to change?Verb for when you want to make teaTuff time, tough time, difficult time?What is the common meaning and usage of “get mad”?Which one is true or better?(Bell pepper, capsicum, chilli, pepper) What's the difference?What is the right way of asking someone to give a more detailed explanation of what he just said (or wrote)?American pronunciation of (tall, taught, law, bought) vs (father, pasta, drop)
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What is the difference between “behavior” and “behaviour”?
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Contributor's Guide to English Language LearnersIs there any difference between these two sentences?What is the real or main difference between English and American speaking?What is the different between change and to change?Verb for when you want to make teaTuff time, tough time, difficult time?What is the common meaning and usage of “get mad”?Which one is true or better?(Bell pepper, capsicum, chilli, pepper) What's the difference?What is the right way of asking someone to give a more detailed explanation of what he just said (or wrote)?American pronunciation of (tall, taught, law, bought) vs (father, pasta, drop)
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In the online version of Cambridge Dictionary, there are these definitions for the next two words:
Behaviour = the way that someone behaves
Behavior = a particular way of acting
What would be a difference between behavior and behaviour by some example?
american-english
add a comment |
In the online version of Cambridge Dictionary, there are these definitions for the next two words:
Behaviour = the way that someone behaves
Behavior = a particular way of acting
What would be a difference between behavior and behaviour by some example?
american-english
1
Related pages comparing the two: Grammarist, Grammar.com, Writing Explained and Wikipedia (which only briefly notes both versions). I found these by Googling "behavior and behaviour".
– NotThatGuy
Mar 27 at 16:18
1
If you look at the 2 definitions, you will see that they come from different sources; this is why the definitions differ in their wording.
– Dancrumb
Mar 28 at 20:11
I am not sure as I am not up to date with rules being followed here, but this seems like a very basic question to start with and should not be allowed in this forum. And if it has to be, it sets a bad example for more such questions to be asked in future.
– Mohit
Apr 18 at 12:20
add a comment |
In the online version of Cambridge Dictionary, there are these definitions for the next two words:
Behaviour = the way that someone behaves
Behavior = a particular way of acting
What would be a difference between behavior and behaviour by some example?
american-english
In the online version of Cambridge Dictionary, there are these definitions for the next two words:
Behaviour = the way that someone behaves
Behavior = a particular way of acting
What would be a difference between behavior and behaviour by some example?
american-english
american-english
edited Mar 27 at 9:11
Peter Mortensen
27528
27528
asked Mar 26 at 19:49
b2okb2ok
369315
369315
1
Related pages comparing the two: Grammarist, Grammar.com, Writing Explained and Wikipedia (which only briefly notes both versions). I found these by Googling "behavior and behaviour".
– NotThatGuy
Mar 27 at 16:18
1
If you look at the 2 definitions, you will see that they come from different sources; this is why the definitions differ in their wording.
– Dancrumb
Mar 28 at 20:11
I am not sure as I am not up to date with rules being followed here, but this seems like a very basic question to start with and should not be allowed in this forum. And if it has to be, it sets a bad example for more such questions to be asked in future.
– Mohit
Apr 18 at 12:20
add a comment |
1
Related pages comparing the two: Grammarist, Grammar.com, Writing Explained and Wikipedia (which only briefly notes both versions). I found these by Googling "behavior and behaviour".
– NotThatGuy
Mar 27 at 16:18
1
If you look at the 2 definitions, you will see that they come from different sources; this is why the definitions differ in their wording.
– Dancrumb
Mar 28 at 20:11
I am not sure as I am not up to date with rules being followed here, but this seems like a very basic question to start with and should not be allowed in this forum. And if it has to be, it sets a bad example for more such questions to be asked in future.
– Mohit
Apr 18 at 12:20
1
1
Related pages comparing the two: Grammarist, Grammar.com, Writing Explained and Wikipedia (which only briefly notes both versions). I found these by Googling "behavior and behaviour".
– NotThatGuy
Mar 27 at 16:18
Related pages comparing the two: Grammarist, Grammar.com, Writing Explained and Wikipedia (which only briefly notes both versions). I found these by Googling "behavior and behaviour".
– NotThatGuy
Mar 27 at 16:18
1
1
If you look at the 2 definitions, you will see that they come from different sources; this is why the definitions differ in their wording.
– Dancrumb
Mar 28 at 20:11
If you look at the 2 definitions, you will see that they come from different sources; this is why the definitions differ in their wording.
– Dancrumb
Mar 28 at 20:11
I am not sure as I am not up to date with rules being followed here, but this seems like a very basic question to start with and should not be allowed in this forum. And if it has to be, it sets a bad example for more such questions to be asked in future.
– Mohit
Apr 18 at 12:20
I am not sure as I am not up to date with rules being followed here, but this seems like a very basic question to start with and should not be allowed in this forum. And if it has to be, it sets a bad example for more such questions to be asked in future.
– Mohit
Apr 18 at 12:20
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
They mean the same thing; behaviour is the British English spelling; behavior is the American spelling. The definitions say the same thing in different ways.
13
It should be noted that this is very common - there are many words which end in "our" in British English and "or" in American English.
– Darrel Hoffman
Mar 27 at 12:49
Right, Darrel, and I'd like to add that the words ‘motor’, ‘rotor’, ‘abhor’ are not among them. :)
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 28 at 20:48
@ArtyomLugovoy you are coming at it from the other way. Look first for the 'our' words in BE then their corresponding word in AmE.
– mcalex
Mar 29 at 7:50
1
@mcalex I just mentioned that if one sees an 'or' word, that doesn't necessarily mean there is a corresponding 'our' word. As well as the words ‘pour’ and ‘sour’ existing in BrE are the same in AmE.
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 29 at 10:34
add a comment |
In fact, there is no difference between behaviour and behavior except spelling. The former is preferred in British and Commonwealth English, the latter is the American spelling.
The entries are confusing because there is no single "Cambridge Dictionary." Cambridge University Press actually publishes dozens of different dictionaries. Their website, however, searches them all at once, and returns definitions which may or may not be relevant to you.
When you look up behaviour, you are given entries from the Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionary & Thesaurus and the Cambridge Business English Dictionary. When you look up behavior, you are given the entry in the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary, and from the Cambridge Business English Dictionary a pointer to the entry for behaviour. Because the target audience for each dictionary is different, you see slightly different entries, but this is a quirk of the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary failing to synonymize the spellings.
I commend you for doing your best with references, but would also recommend you limit searches to a learner's dictionary (e.g. Collins, Oxford, Macmillan, Cambridge, or Merriam-Webster) to avoid this happening in the future.
your Cambridge there is no IPA for US and because I stay with my Cambridge. Thank a lot for your excellent explanation to me.
– b2ok
Mar 26 at 21:47
All the learner's dictionaries listed above, except Macmillan, give IPA pronunciations for both US and UK. The Cambridge Learner's shows both pronunciations if they are different, but only shows only a single one if they are the same.
– AndyB
Mar 28 at 20:00
add a comment |
In short, they're the same word spelt differently in the US and the UK.
It's not very obvious because of the way Cambridge has laid out their pages.
behaviour
noun UK US behavior
behavior
noun [ C/U ] CDN BR behaviour
behavior
noun [ U ]
→ behaviour
Wiktionary's entries are much clearer:
behaviour
Alternative forms
behavior (US)
behavior
Alternative forms
behaviour (UK)
add a comment |
Behaviour is the British spelling and behavior is the American variant.
The British spelling is in this case slightly more faithful to the etymology of the word.
The OED has the following etymology of behaviour:
- formed on the verb behave, by form-analogy with havour, havyoure, common 15–16th century forms of the word which was originally the noun aver (q.v.), aveyr, also in 15th century avoir; really Old French aveir, avoir, in sense of ‘having, possession,’ but naturally affiliated in English to the native verb have, and spelt haver, havour, haviour, etc. Hence, by analogy, have: havour, -iour: behave: behavour, -iour.
- The formation might be confirmed by the (apparently) parallel demeanour, from demean (oneself). For the -iour see havour.
The etymology of havour:
- Originally an adoption of the French aveir, avoir ‘having, possession, property, estate, wealth, etc.’, substantive use of avoir, Old French aveir ‘to have’.
- First used in English in the Norman form aveyr [...]; the Central French form avoir appeared about 1400, and displaced aver, except in the northern dialect, where that form survived in a specific sense.
- In 14–15th century, association with the English have, having, introduced the variants haver, havoir, havour, and the h was established before 1500. At the same time the parallel behavour was formed on the English behave; and in 16th century havour, beside its original sense of ‘possession’, took also that of behavour.
- Subsequently the termination of both words passed through -eour to -iour (cf. saviour, and vulgar ‘lovier’); the original sense ‘possession’ became obsolete; and, in the new sense, haviour came down alongside of behaviour, of which it may often have been viewed as a shortened by-form.
The American spelling, behavior, on the other hand, is effectively more 'phonetic' in nature, in that it dispenses with the u (there are only a few exceptions), which is otherwise not pronounced. At the beginning of the 19th century, Noah Webster pushed this change primarily via his dictionary, and Americans gradually adopted the new spelling. Etymonline.com says:
When the Americans began to consistently spell it one way, however, the British reflexively hardened their insistence on the other. "The American abolition of -our in such words as honour and favour has probably retarded rather than quickened English progress in the same direction." [Fowler]
If you're using American English, you should write behavior. If, on the other hand, you're using the British variant, write behaviour. The important thing is to be be consistent, as the commenters say: it'd be considered unusual to have both colour and behavior in the same sentence.
In short: pick a dialect and use it consistently.
4
This is very much not correct. I don't really know where to start, but there is literally no sense in which British English is 'more correct' than any other form of English. Likewise, many American words and phrases are older than the British English equivalents, and were preserved by the separation of North American and British populations. Furthermore, 'color' et al were common spellings before the standardization of spelling in Britain, and '-ize' has only recently become something Britons generally avoid. '-ize' and '-ise' are still both acceptable in British English.
– fred2
Mar 28 at 18:57
4
It is far more important that someone be consistent in their choice of English variation than to choose one particular one over the other. If I see “colour” I expect that the grammar and vocabulary will be British. If the subsequent text uses American grammar or vocabulary, then I will view it as a mistake, where I wouldn’t if the “color” spelling were used. Students should learn whichever variation they have the best access to native speakers of.
– ColleenV♦
Mar 28 at 20:56
@fred2 Apologies, I didn't mean to stir sentiment. I'm not implying 'British' English is somehow more noble. It's simply a matter of definition. 'English' is the language of England. Not to mention, within England there's a lot of regional dialects too, so the canonical version of English is that known as 'The Queen's tongue', which is what most people mean by 'British' English. Older origins are not relevant. I'm from Cyprus, which is closer to ancient Greek than modern Greek. But I would never claim the Cypriot dialect is canonical for that reason. Greek is the language spoken in Greece.
– Tasos Papastylianou
Mar 28 at 20:58
2
@TasosPapastylianou This answer, along with the corresponding comments, shows a profound ignorance of how the English language developed, and what a language is. In linguistics (a field you evidently have no experience in) there's a distinction between British English (BrE) and American English (AmE) as two families of dialects which implement what linguists call Standard English. Not all dialects implement Standard English, but those that we call BrE and AmE do.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 15:09
1
@TasosPapastylianou "In any case, the canonical 'British' spelling [...] is typically the more 'correct' one in a linguistic sense" – this is absolutely incorrect. Do you understand that? You're suggesting that BrE be used as some sort of canonical English, and you base that suggestion on false claims such as the above.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 16:57
|
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4 Answers
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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active
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active
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They mean the same thing; behaviour is the British English spelling; behavior is the American spelling. The definitions say the same thing in different ways.
13
It should be noted that this is very common - there are many words which end in "our" in British English and "or" in American English.
– Darrel Hoffman
Mar 27 at 12:49
Right, Darrel, and I'd like to add that the words ‘motor’, ‘rotor’, ‘abhor’ are not among them. :)
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 28 at 20:48
@ArtyomLugovoy you are coming at it from the other way. Look first for the 'our' words in BE then their corresponding word in AmE.
– mcalex
Mar 29 at 7:50
1
@mcalex I just mentioned that if one sees an 'or' word, that doesn't necessarily mean there is a corresponding 'our' word. As well as the words ‘pour’ and ‘sour’ existing in BrE are the same in AmE.
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 29 at 10:34
add a comment |
They mean the same thing; behaviour is the British English spelling; behavior is the American spelling. The definitions say the same thing in different ways.
13
It should be noted that this is very common - there are many words which end in "our" in British English and "or" in American English.
– Darrel Hoffman
Mar 27 at 12:49
Right, Darrel, and I'd like to add that the words ‘motor’, ‘rotor’, ‘abhor’ are not among them. :)
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 28 at 20:48
@ArtyomLugovoy you are coming at it from the other way. Look first for the 'our' words in BE then their corresponding word in AmE.
– mcalex
Mar 29 at 7:50
1
@mcalex I just mentioned that if one sees an 'or' word, that doesn't necessarily mean there is a corresponding 'our' word. As well as the words ‘pour’ and ‘sour’ existing in BrE are the same in AmE.
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 29 at 10:34
add a comment |
They mean the same thing; behaviour is the British English spelling; behavior is the American spelling. The definitions say the same thing in different ways.
They mean the same thing; behaviour is the British English spelling; behavior is the American spelling. The definitions say the same thing in different ways.
answered Mar 26 at 20:00
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19.5k12442
19.5k12442
13
It should be noted that this is very common - there are many words which end in "our" in British English and "or" in American English.
– Darrel Hoffman
Mar 27 at 12:49
Right, Darrel, and I'd like to add that the words ‘motor’, ‘rotor’, ‘abhor’ are not among them. :)
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 28 at 20:48
@ArtyomLugovoy you are coming at it from the other way. Look first for the 'our' words in BE then their corresponding word in AmE.
– mcalex
Mar 29 at 7:50
1
@mcalex I just mentioned that if one sees an 'or' word, that doesn't necessarily mean there is a corresponding 'our' word. As well as the words ‘pour’ and ‘sour’ existing in BrE are the same in AmE.
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 29 at 10:34
add a comment |
13
It should be noted that this is very common - there are many words which end in "our" in British English and "or" in American English.
– Darrel Hoffman
Mar 27 at 12:49
Right, Darrel, and I'd like to add that the words ‘motor’, ‘rotor’, ‘abhor’ are not among them. :)
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 28 at 20:48
@ArtyomLugovoy you are coming at it from the other way. Look first for the 'our' words in BE then their corresponding word in AmE.
– mcalex
Mar 29 at 7:50
1
@mcalex I just mentioned that if one sees an 'or' word, that doesn't necessarily mean there is a corresponding 'our' word. As well as the words ‘pour’ and ‘sour’ existing in BrE are the same in AmE.
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 29 at 10:34
13
13
It should be noted that this is very common - there are many words which end in "our" in British English and "or" in American English.
– Darrel Hoffman
Mar 27 at 12:49
It should be noted that this is very common - there are many words which end in "our" in British English and "or" in American English.
– Darrel Hoffman
Mar 27 at 12:49
Right, Darrel, and I'd like to add that the words ‘motor’, ‘rotor’, ‘abhor’ are not among them. :)
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 28 at 20:48
Right, Darrel, and I'd like to add that the words ‘motor’, ‘rotor’, ‘abhor’ are not among them. :)
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 28 at 20:48
@ArtyomLugovoy you are coming at it from the other way. Look first for the 'our' words in BE then their corresponding word in AmE.
– mcalex
Mar 29 at 7:50
@ArtyomLugovoy you are coming at it from the other way. Look first for the 'our' words in BE then their corresponding word in AmE.
– mcalex
Mar 29 at 7:50
1
1
@mcalex I just mentioned that if one sees an 'or' word, that doesn't necessarily mean there is a corresponding 'our' word. As well as the words ‘pour’ and ‘sour’ existing in BrE are the same in AmE.
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 29 at 10:34
@mcalex I just mentioned that if one sees an 'or' word, that doesn't necessarily mean there is a corresponding 'our' word. As well as the words ‘pour’ and ‘sour’ existing in BrE are the same in AmE.
– Artyom Lugovoy
Mar 29 at 10:34
add a comment |
In fact, there is no difference between behaviour and behavior except spelling. The former is preferred in British and Commonwealth English, the latter is the American spelling.
The entries are confusing because there is no single "Cambridge Dictionary." Cambridge University Press actually publishes dozens of different dictionaries. Their website, however, searches them all at once, and returns definitions which may or may not be relevant to you.
When you look up behaviour, you are given entries from the Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionary & Thesaurus and the Cambridge Business English Dictionary. When you look up behavior, you are given the entry in the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary, and from the Cambridge Business English Dictionary a pointer to the entry for behaviour. Because the target audience for each dictionary is different, you see slightly different entries, but this is a quirk of the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary failing to synonymize the spellings.
I commend you for doing your best with references, but would also recommend you limit searches to a learner's dictionary (e.g. Collins, Oxford, Macmillan, Cambridge, or Merriam-Webster) to avoid this happening in the future.
your Cambridge there is no IPA for US and because I stay with my Cambridge. Thank a lot for your excellent explanation to me.
– b2ok
Mar 26 at 21:47
All the learner's dictionaries listed above, except Macmillan, give IPA pronunciations for both US and UK. The Cambridge Learner's shows both pronunciations if they are different, but only shows only a single one if they are the same.
– AndyB
Mar 28 at 20:00
add a comment |
In fact, there is no difference between behaviour and behavior except spelling. The former is preferred in British and Commonwealth English, the latter is the American spelling.
The entries are confusing because there is no single "Cambridge Dictionary." Cambridge University Press actually publishes dozens of different dictionaries. Their website, however, searches them all at once, and returns definitions which may or may not be relevant to you.
When you look up behaviour, you are given entries from the Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionary & Thesaurus and the Cambridge Business English Dictionary. When you look up behavior, you are given the entry in the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary, and from the Cambridge Business English Dictionary a pointer to the entry for behaviour. Because the target audience for each dictionary is different, you see slightly different entries, but this is a quirk of the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary failing to synonymize the spellings.
I commend you for doing your best with references, but would also recommend you limit searches to a learner's dictionary (e.g. Collins, Oxford, Macmillan, Cambridge, or Merriam-Webster) to avoid this happening in the future.
your Cambridge there is no IPA for US and because I stay with my Cambridge. Thank a lot for your excellent explanation to me.
– b2ok
Mar 26 at 21:47
All the learner's dictionaries listed above, except Macmillan, give IPA pronunciations for both US and UK. The Cambridge Learner's shows both pronunciations if they are different, but only shows only a single one if they are the same.
– AndyB
Mar 28 at 20:00
add a comment |
In fact, there is no difference between behaviour and behavior except spelling. The former is preferred in British and Commonwealth English, the latter is the American spelling.
The entries are confusing because there is no single "Cambridge Dictionary." Cambridge University Press actually publishes dozens of different dictionaries. Their website, however, searches them all at once, and returns definitions which may or may not be relevant to you.
When you look up behaviour, you are given entries from the Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionary & Thesaurus and the Cambridge Business English Dictionary. When you look up behavior, you are given the entry in the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary, and from the Cambridge Business English Dictionary a pointer to the entry for behaviour. Because the target audience for each dictionary is different, you see slightly different entries, but this is a quirk of the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary failing to synonymize the spellings.
I commend you for doing your best with references, but would also recommend you limit searches to a learner's dictionary (e.g. Collins, Oxford, Macmillan, Cambridge, or Merriam-Webster) to avoid this happening in the future.
In fact, there is no difference between behaviour and behavior except spelling. The former is preferred in British and Commonwealth English, the latter is the American spelling.
The entries are confusing because there is no single "Cambridge Dictionary." Cambridge University Press actually publishes dozens of different dictionaries. Their website, however, searches them all at once, and returns definitions which may or may not be relevant to you.
When you look up behaviour, you are given entries from the Cambridge Advanced Learner's Dictionary & Thesaurus and the Cambridge Business English Dictionary. When you look up behavior, you are given the entry in the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary, and from the Cambridge Business English Dictionary a pointer to the entry for behaviour. Because the target audience for each dictionary is different, you see slightly different entries, but this is a quirk of the Cambridge Academic Content Dictionary failing to synonymize the spellings.
I commend you for doing your best with references, but would also recommend you limit searches to a learner's dictionary (e.g. Collins, Oxford, Macmillan, Cambridge, or Merriam-Webster) to avoid this happening in the future.
answered Mar 26 at 20:36
chosterchoster
14.7k3664
14.7k3664
your Cambridge there is no IPA for US and because I stay with my Cambridge. Thank a lot for your excellent explanation to me.
– b2ok
Mar 26 at 21:47
All the learner's dictionaries listed above, except Macmillan, give IPA pronunciations for both US and UK. The Cambridge Learner's shows both pronunciations if they are different, but only shows only a single one if they are the same.
– AndyB
Mar 28 at 20:00
add a comment |
your Cambridge there is no IPA for US and because I stay with my Cambridge. Thank a lot for your excellent explanation to me.
– b2ok
Mar 26 at 21:47
All the learner's dictionaries listed above, except Macmillan, give IPA pronunciations for both US and UK. The Cambridge Learner's shows both pronunciations if they are different, but only shows only a single one if they are the same.
– AndyB
Mar 28 at 20:00
your Cambridge there is no IPA for US and because I stay with my Cambridge. Thank a lot for your excellent explanation to me.
– b2ok
Mar 26 at 21:47
your Cambridge there is no IPA for US and because I stay with my Cambridge. Thank a lot for your excellent explanation to me.
– b2ok
Mar 26 at 21:47
All the learner's dictionaries listed above, except Macmillan, give IPA pronunciations for both US and UK. The Cambridge Learner's shows both pronunciations if they are different, but only shows only a single one if they are the same.
– AndyB
Mar 28 at 20:00
All the learner's dictionaries listed above, except Macmillan, give IPA pronunciations for both US and UK. The Cambridge Learner's shows both pronunciations if they are different, but only shows only a single one if they are the same.
– AndyB
Mar 28 at 20:00
add a comment |
In short, they're the same word spelt differently in the US and the UK.
It's not very obvious because of the way Cambridge has laid out their pages.
behaviour
noun UK US behavior
behavior
noun [ C/U ] CDN BR behaviour
behavior
noun [ U ]
→ behaviour
Wiktionary's entries are much clearer:
behaviour
Alternative forms
behavior (US)
behavior
Alternative forms
behaviour (UK)
add a comment |
In short, they're the same word spelt differently in the US and the UK.
It's not very obvious because of the way Cambridge has laid out their pages.
behaviour
noun UK US behavior
behavior
noun [ C/U ] CDN BR behaviour
behavior
noun [ U ]
→ behaviour
Wiktionary's entries are much clearer:
behaviour
Alternative forms
behavior (US)
behavior
Alternative forms
behaviour (UK)
add a comment |
In short, they're the same word spelt differently in the US and the UK.
It's not very obvious because of the way Cambridge has laid out their pages.
behaviour
noun UK US behavior
behavior
noun [ C/U ] CDN BR behaviour
behavior
noun [ U ]
→ behaviour
Wiktionary's entries are much clearer:
behaviour
Alternative forms
behavior (US)
behavior
Alternative forms
behaviour (UK)
In short, they're the same word spelt differently in the US and the UK.
It's not very obvious because of the way Cambridge has laid out their pages.
behaviour
noun UK US behavior
behavior
noun [ C/U ] CDN BR behaviour
behavior
noun [ U ]
→ behaviour
Wiktionary's entries are much clearer:
behaviour
Alternative forms
behavior (US)
behavior
Alternative forms
behaviour (UK)
edited Mar 27 at 17:57
Konrad Rudolph
34418
34418
answered Mar 27 at 11:06
CJ DennisCJ Dennis
2,161719
2,161719
add a comment |
add a comment |
Behaviour is the British spelling and behavior is the American variant.
The British spelling is in this case slightly more faithful to the etymology of the word.
The OED has the following etymology of behaviour:
- formed on the verb behave, by form-analogy with havour, havyoure, common 15–16th century forms of the word which was originally the noun aver (q.v.), aveyr, also in 15th century avoir; really Old French aveir, avoir, in sense of ‘having, possession,’ but naturally affiliated in English to the native verb have, and spelt haver, havour, haviour, etc. Hence, by analogy, have: havour, -iour: behave: behavour, -iour.
- The formation might be confirmed by the (apparently) parallel demeanour, from demean (oneself). For the -iour see havour.
The etymology of havour:
- Originally an adoption of the French aveir, avoir ‘having, possession, property, estate, wealth, etc.’, substantive use of avoir, Old French aveir ‘to have’.
- First used in English in the Norman form aveyr [...]; the Central French form avoir appeared about 1400, and displaced aver, except in the northern dialect, where that form survived in a specific sense.
- In 14–15th century, association with the English have, having, introduced the variants haver, havoir, havour, and the h was established before 1500. At the same time the parallel behavour was formed on the English behave; and in 16th century havour, beside its original sense of ‘possession’, took also that of behavour.
- Subsequently the termination of both words passed through -eour to -iour (cf. saviour, and vulgar ‘lovier’); the original sense ‘possession’ became obsolete; and, in the new sense, haviour came down alongside of behaviour, of which it may often have been viewed as a shortened by-form.
The American spelling, behavior, on the other hand, is effectively more 'phonetic' in nature, in that it dispenses with the u (there are only a few exceptions), which is otherwise not pronounced. At the beginning of the 19th century, Noah Webster pushed this change primarily via his dictionary, and Americans gradually adopted the new spelling. Etymonline.com says:
When the Americans began to consistently spell it one way, however, the British reflexively hardened their insistence on the other. "The American abolition of -our in such words as honour and favour has probably retarded rather than quickened English progress in the same direction." [Fowler]
If you're using American English, you should write behavior. If, on the other hand, you're using the British variant, write behaviour. The important thing is to be be consistent, as the commenters say: it'd be considered unusual to have both colour and behavior in the same sentence.
In short: pick a dialect and use it consistently.
4
This is very much not correct. I don't really know where to start, but there is literally no sense in which British English is 'more correct' than any other form of English. Likewise, many American words and phrases are older than the British English equivalents, and were preserved by the separation of North American and British populations. Furthermore, 'color' et al were common spellings before the standardization of spelling in Britain, and '-ize' has only recently become something Britons generally avoid. '-ize' and '-ise' are still both acceptable in British English.
– fred2
Mar 28 at 18:57
4
It is far more important that someone be consistent in their choice of English variation than to choose one particular one over the other. If I see “colour” I expect that the grammar and vocabulary will be British. If the subsequent text uses American grammar or vocabulary, then I will view it as a mistake, where I wouldn’t if the “color” spelling were used. Students should learn whichever variation they have the best access to native speakers of.
– ColleenV♦
Mar 28 at 20:56
@fred2 Apologies, I didn't mean to stir sentiment. I'm not implying 'British' English is somehow more noble. It's simply a matter of definition. 'English' is the language of England. Not to mention, within England there's a lot of regional dialects too, so the canonical version of English is that known as 'The Queen's tongue', which is what most people mean by 'British' English. Older origins are not relevant. I'm from Cyprus, which is closer to ancient Greek than modern Greek. But I would never claim the Cypriot dialect is canonical for that reason. Greek is the language spoken in Greece.
– Tasos Papastylianou
Mar 28 at 20:58
2
@TasosPapastylianou This answer, along with the corresponding comments, shows a profound ignorance of how the English language developed, and what a language is. In linguistics (a field you evidently have no experience in) there's a distinction between British English (BrE) and American English (AmE) as two families of dialects which implement what linguists call Standard English. Not all dialects implement Standard English, but those that we call BrE and AmE do.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 15:09
1
@TasosPapastylianou "In any case, the canonical 'British' spelling [...] is typically the more 'correct' one in a linguistic sense" – this is absolutely incorrect. Do you understand that? You're suggesting that BrE be used as some sort of canonical English, and you base that suggestion on false claims such as the above.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 16:57
|
show 4 more comments
Behaviour is the British spelling and behavior is the American variant.
The British spelling is in this case slightly more faithful to the etymology of the word.
The OED has the following etymology of behaviour:
- formed on the verb behave, by form-analogy with havour, havyoure, common 15–16th century forms of the word which was originally the noun aver (q.v.), aveyr, also in 15th century avoir; really Old French aveir, avoir, in sense of ‘having, possession,’ but naturally affiliated in English to the native verb have, and spelt haver, havour, haviour, etc. Hence, by analogy, have: havour, -iour: behave: behavour, -iour.
- The formation might be confirmed by the (apparently) parallel demeanour, from demean (oneself). For the -iour see havour.
The etymology of havour:
- Originally an adoption of the French aveir, avoir ‘having, possession, property, estate, wealth, etc.’, substantive use of avoir, Old French aveir ‘to have’.
- First used in English in the Norman form aveyr [...]; the Central French form avoir appeared about 1400, and displaced aver, except in the northern dialect, where that form survived in a specific sense.
- In 14–15th century, association with the English have, having, introduced the variants haver, havoir, havour, and the h was established before 1500. At the same time the parallel behavour was formed on the English behave; and in 16th century havour, beside its original sense of ‘possession’, took also that of behavour.
- Subsequently the termination of both words passed through -eour to -iour (cf. saviour, and vulgar ‘lovier’); the original sense ‘possession’ became obsolete; and, in the new sense, haviour came down alongside of behaviour, of which it may often have been viewed as a shortened by-form.
The American spelling, behavior, on the other hand, is effectively more 'phonetic' in nature, in that it dispenses with the u (there are only a few exceptions), which is otherwise not pronounced. At the beginning of the 19th century, Noah Webster pushed this change primarily via his dictionary, and Americans gradually adopted the new spelling. Etymonline.com says:
When the Americans began to consistently spell it one way, however, the British reflexively hardened their insistence on the other. "The American abolition of -our in such words as honour and favour has probably retarded rather than quickened English progress in the same direction." [Fowler]
If you're using American English, you should write behavior. If, on the other hand, you're using the British variant, write behaviour. The important thing is to be be consistent, as the commenters say: it'd be considered unusual to have both colour and behavior in the same sentence.
In short: pick a dialect and use it consistently.
4
This is very much not correct. I don't really know where to start, but there is literally no sense in which British English is 'more correct' than any other form of English. Likewise, many American words and phrases are older than the British English equivalents, and were preserved by the separation of North American and British populations. Furthermore, 'color' et al were common spellings before the standardization of spelling in Britain, and '-ize' has only recently become something Britons generally avoid. '-ize' and '-ise' are still both acceptable in British English.
– fred2
Mar 28 at 18:57
4
It is far more important that someone be consistent in their choice of English variation than to choose one particular one over the other. If I see “colour” I expect that the grammar and vocabulary will be British. If the subsequent text uses American grammar or vocabulary, then I will view it as a mistake, where I wouldn’t if the “color” spelling were used. Students should learn whichever variation they have the best access to native speakers of.
– ColleenV♦
Mar 28 at 20:56
@fred2 Apologies, I didn't mean to stir sentiment. I'm not implying 'British' English is somehow more noble. It's simply a matter of definition. 'English' is the language of England. Not to mention, within England there's a lot of regional dialects too, so the canonical version of English is that known as 'The Queen's tongue', which is what most people mean by 'British' English. Older origins are not relevant. I'm from Cyprus, which is closer to ancient Greek than modern Greek. But I would never claim the Cypriot dialect is canonical for that reason. Greek is the language spoken in Greece.
– Tasos Papastylianou
Mar 28 at 20:58
2
@TasosPapastylianou This answer, along with the corresponding comments, shows a profound ignorance of how the English language developed, and what a language is. In linguistics (a field you evidently have no experience in) there's a distinction between British English (BrE) and American English (AmE) as two families of dialects which implement what linguists call Standard English. Not all dialects implement Standard English, but those that we call BrE and AmE do.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 15:09
1
@TasosPapastylianou "In any case, the canonical 'British' spelling [...] is typically the more 'correct' one in a linguistic sense" – this is absolutely incorrect. Do you understand that? You're suggesting that BrE be used as some sort of canonical English, and you base that suggestion on false claims such as the above.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 16:57
|
show 4 more comments
Behaviour is the British spelling and behavior is the American variant.
The British spelling is in this case slightly more faithful to the etymology of the word.
The OED has the following etymology of behaviour:
- formed on the verb behave, by form-analogy with havour, havyoure, common 15–16th century forms of the word which was originally the noun aver (q.v.), aveyr, also in 15th century avoir; really Old French aveir, avoir, in sense of ‘having, possession,’ but naturally affiliated in English to the native verb have, and spelt haver, havour, haviour, etc. Hence, by analogy, have: havour, -iour: behave: behavour, -iour.
- The formation might be confirmed by the (apparently) parallel demeanour, from demean (oneself). For the -iour see havour.
The etymology of havour:
- Originally an adoption of the French aveir, avoir ‘having, possession, property, estate, wealth, etc.’, substantive use of avoir, Old French aveir ‘to have’.
- First used in English in the Norman form aveyr [...]; the Central French form avoir appeared about 1400, and displaced aver, except in the northern dialect, where that form survived in a specific sense.
- In 14–15th century, association with the English have, having, introduced the variants haver, havoir, havour, and the h was established before 1500. At the same time the parallel behavour was formed on the English behave; and in 16th century havour, beside its original sense of ‘possession’, took also that of behavour.
- Subsequently the termination of both words passed through -eour to -iour (cf. saviour, and vulgar ‘lovier’); the original sense ‘possession’ became obsolete; and, in the new sense, haviour came down alongside of behaviour, of which it may often have been viewed as a shortened by-form.
The American spelling, behavior, on the other hand, is effectively more 'phonetic' in nature, in that it dispenses with the u (there are only a few exceptions), which is otherwise not pronounced. At the beginning of the 19th century, Noah Webster pushed this change primarily via his dictionary, and Americans gradually adopted the new spelling. Etymonline.com says:
When the Americans began to consistently spell it one way, however, the British reflexively hardened their insistence on the other. "The American abolition of -our in such words as honour and favour has probably retarded rather than quickened English progress in the same direction." [Fowler]
If you're using American English, you should write behavior. If, on the other hand, you're using the British variant, write behaviour. The important thing is to be be consistent, as the commenters say: it'd be considered unusual to have both colour and behavior in the same sentence.
In short: pick a dialect and use it consistently.
Behaviour is the British spelling and behavior is the American variant.
The British spelling is in this case slightly more faithful to the etymology of the word.
The OED has the following etymology of behaviour:
- formed on the verb behave, by form-analogy with havour, havyoure, common 15–16th century forms of the word which was originally the noun aver (q.v.), aveyr, also in 15th century avoir; really Old French aveir, avoir, in sense of ‘having, possession,’ but naturally affiliated in English to the native verb have, and spelt haver, havour, haviour, etc. Hence, by analogy, have: havour, -iour: behave: behavour, -iour.
- The formation might be confirmed by the (apparently) parallel demeanour, from demean (oneself). For the -iour see havour.
The etymology of havour:
- Originally an adoption of the French aveir, avoir ‘having, possession, property, estate, wealth, etc.’, substantive use of avoir, Old French aveir ‘to have’.
- First used in English in the Norman form aveyr [...]; the Central French form avoir appeared about 1400, and displaced aver, except in the northern dialect, where that form survived in a specific sense.
- In 14–15th century, association with the English have, having, introduced the variants haver, havoir, havour, and the h was established before 1500. At the same time the parallel behavour was formed on the English behave; and in 16th century havour, beside its original sense of ‘possession’, took also that of behavour.
- Subsequently the termination of both words passed through -eour to -iour (cf. saviour, and vulgar ‘lovier’); the original sense ‘possession’ became obsolete; and, in the new sense, haviour came down alongside of behaviour, of which it may often have been viewed as a shortened by-form.
The American spelling, behavior, on the other hand, is effectively more 'phonetic' in nature, in that it dispenses with the u (there are only a few exceptions), which is otherwise not pronounced. At the beginning of the 19th century, Noah Webster pushed this change primarily via his dictionary, and Americans gradually adopted the new spelling. Etymonline.com says:
When the Americans began to consistently spell it one way, however, the British reflexively hardened their insistence on the other. "The American abolition of -our in such words as honour and favour has probably retarded rather than quickened English progress in the same direction." [Fowler]
If you're using American English, you should write behavior. If, on the other hand, you're using the British variant, write behaviour. The important thing is to be be consistent, as the commenters say: it'd be considered unusual to have both colour and behavior in the same sentence.
In short: pick a dialect and use it consistently.
edited Mar 29 at 22:41
userr2684291
2,62031532
2,62031532
answered Mar 28 at 18:48
Tasos PapastylianouTasos Papastylianou
1232
1232
4
This is very much not correct. I don't really know where to start, but there is literally no sense in which British English is 'more correct' than any other form of English. Likewise, many American words and phrases are older than the British English equivalents, and were preserved by the separation of North American and British populations. Furthermore, 'color' et al were common spellings before the standardization of spelling in Britain, and '-ize' has only recently become something Britons generally avoid. '-ize' and '-ise' are still both acceptable in British English.
– fred2
Mar 28 at 18:57
4
It is far more important that someone be consistent in their choice of English variation than to choose one particular one over the other. If I see “colour” I expect that the grammar and vocabulary will be British. If the subsequent text uses American grammar or vocabulary, then I will view it as a mistake, where I wouldn’t if the “color” spelling were used. Students should learn whichever variation they have the best access to native speakers of.
– ColleenV♦
Mar 28 at 20:56
@fred2 Apologies, I didn't mean to stir sentiment. I'm not implying 'British' English is somehow more noble. It's simply a matter of definition. 'English' is the language of England. Not to mention, within England there's a lot of regional dialects too, so the canonical version of English is that known as 'The Queen's tongue', which is what most people mean by 'British' English. Older origins are not relevant. I'm from Cyprus, which is closer to ancient Greek than modern Greek. But I would never claim the Cypriot dialect is canonical for that reason. Greek is the language spoken in Greece.
– Tasos Papastylianou
Mar 28 at 20:58
2
@TasosPapastylianou This answer, along with the corresponding comments, shows a profound ignorance of how the English language developed, and what a language is. In linguistics (a field you evidently have no experience in) there's a distinction between British English (BrE) and American English (AmE) as two families of dialects which implement what linguists call Standard English. Not all dialects implement Standard English, but those that we call BrE and AmE do.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 15:09
1
@TasosPapastylianou "In any case, the canonical 'British' spelling [...] is typically the more 'correct' one in a linguistic sense" – this is absolutely incorrect. Do you understand that? You're suggesting that BrE be used as some sort of canonical English, and you base that suggestion on false claims such as the above.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 16:57
|
show 4 more comments
4
This is very much not correct. I don't really know where to start, but there is literally no sense in which British English is 'more correct' than any other form of English. Likewise, many American words and phrases are older than the British English equivalents, and were preserved by the separation of North American and British populations. Furthermore, 'color' et al were common spellings before the standardization of spelling in Britain, and '-ize' has only recently become something Britons generally avoid. '-ize' and '-ise' are still both acceptable in British English.
– fred2
Mar 28 at 18:57
4
It is far more important that someone be consistent in their choice of English variation than to choose one particular one over the other. If I see “colour” I expect that the grammar and vocabulary will be British. If the subsequent text uses American grammar or vocabulary, then I will view it as a mistake, where I wouldn’t if the “color” spelling were used. Students should learn whichever variation they have the best access to native speakers of.
– ColleenV♦
Mar 28 at 20:56
@fred2 Apologies, I didn't mean to stir sentiment. I'm not implying 'British' English is somehow more noble. It's simply a matter of definition. 'English' is the language of England. Not to mention, within England there's a lot of regional dialects too, so the canonical version of English is that known as 'The Queen's tongue', which is what most people mean by 'British' English. Older origins are not relevant. I'm from Cyprus, which is closer to ancient Greek than modern Greek. But I would never claim the Cypriot dialect is canonical for that reason. Greek is the language spoken in Greece.
– Tasos Papastylianou
Mar 28 at 20:58
2
@TasosPapastylianou This answer, along with the corresponding comments, shows a profound ignorance of how the English language developed, and what a language is. In linguistics (a field you evidently have no experience in) there's a distinction between British English (BrE) and American English (AmE) as two families of dialects which implement what linguists call Standard English. Not all dialects implement Standard English, but those that we call BrE and AmE do.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 15:09
1
@TasosPapastylianou "In any case, the canonical 'British' spelling [...] is typically the more 'correct' one in a linguistic sense" – this is absolutely incorrect. Do you understand that? You're suggesting that BrE be used as some sort of canonical English, and you base that suggestion on false claims such as the above.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 16:57
4
4
This is very much not correct. I don't really know where to start, but there is literally no sense in which British English is 'more correct' than any other form of English. Likewise, many American words and phrases are older than the British English equivalents, and were preserved by the separation of North American and British populations. Furthermore, 'color' et al were common spellings before the standardization of spelling in Britain, and '-ize' has only recently become something Britons generally avoid. '-ize' and '-ise' are still both acceptable in British English.
– fred2
Mar 28 at 18:57
This is very much not correct. I don't really know where to start, but there is literally no sense in which British English is 'more correct' than any other form of English. Likewise, many American words and phrases are older than the British English equivalents, and were preserved by the separation of North American and British populations. Furthermore, 'color' et al were common spellings before the standardization of spelling in Britain, and '-ize' has only recently become something Britons generally avoid. '-ize' and '-ise' are still both acceptable in British English.
– fred2
Mar 28 at 18:57
4
4
It is far more important that someone be consistent in their choice of English variation than to choose one particular one over the other. If I see “colour” I expect that the grammar and vocabulary will be British. If the subsequent text uses American grammar or vocabulary, then I will view it as a mistake, where I wouldn’t if the “color” spelling were used. Students should learn whichever variation they have the best access to native speakers of.
– ColleenV♦
Mar 28 at 20:56
It is far more important that someone be consistent in their choice of English variation than to choose one particular one over the other. If I see “colour” I expect that the grammar and vocabulary will be British. If the subsequent text uses American grammar or vocabulary, then I will view it as a mistake, where I wouldn’t if the “color” spelling were used. Students should learn whichever variation they have the best access to native speakers of.
– ColleenV♦
Mar 28 at 20:56
@fred2 Apologies, I didn't mean to stir sentiment. I'm not implying 'British' English is somehow more noble. It's simply a matter of definition. 'English' is the language of England. Not to mention, within England there's a lot of regional dialects too, so the canonical version of English is that known as 'The Queen's tongue', which is what most people mean by 'British' English. Older origins are not relevant. I'm from Cyprus, which is closer to ancient Greek than modern Greek. But I would never claim the Cypriot dialect is canonical for that reason. Greek is the language spoken in Greece.
– Tasos Papastylianou
Mar 28 at 20:58
@fred2 Apologies, I didn't mean to stir sentiment. I'm not implying 'British' English is somehow more noble. It's simply a matter of definition. 'English' is the language of England. Not to mention, within England there's a lot of regional dialects too, so the canonical version of English is that known as 'The Queen's tongue', which is what most people mean by 'British' English. Older origins are not relevant. I'm from Cyprus, which is closer to ancient Greek than modern Greek. But I would never claim the Cypriot dialect is canonical for that reason. Greek is the language spoken in Greece.
– Tasos Papastylianou
Mar 28 at 20:58
2
2
@TasosPapastylianou This answer, along with the corresponding comments, shows a profound ignorance of how the English language developed, and what a language is. In linguistics (a field you evidently have no experience in) there's a distinction between British English (BrE) and American English (AmE) as two families of dialects which implement what linguists call Standard English. Not all dialects implement Standard English, but those that we call BrE and AmE do.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 15:09
@TasosPapastylianou This answer, along with the corresponding comments, shows a profound ignorance of how the English language developed, and what a language is. In linguistics (a field you evidently have no experience in) there's a distinction between British English (BrE) and American English (AmE) as two families of dialects which implement what linguists call Standard English. Not all dialects implement Standard English, but those that we call BrE and AmE do.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 15:09
1
1
@TasosPapastylianou "In any case, the canonical 'British' spelling [...] is typically the more 'correct' one in a linguistic sense" – this is absolutely incorrect. Do you understand that? You're suggesting that BrE be used as some sort of canonical English, and you base that suggestion on false claims such as the above.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 16:57
@TasosPapastylianou "In any case, the canonical 'British' spelling [...] is typically the more 'correct' one in a linguistic sense" – this is absolutely incorrect. Do you understand that? You're suggesting that BrE be used as some sort of canonical English, and you base that suggestion on false claims such as the above.
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 16:57
|
show 4 more comments
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Related pages comparing the two: Grammarist, Grammar.com, Writing Explained and Wikipedia (which only briefly notes both versions). I found these by Googling "behavior and behaviour".
– NotThatGuy
Mar 27 at 16:18
1
If you look at the 2 definitions, you will see that they come from different sources; this is why the definitions differ in their wording.
– Dancrumb
Mar 28 at 20:11
I am not sure as I am not up to date with rules being followed here, but this seems like a very basic question to start with and should not be allowed in this forum. And if it has to be, it sets a bad example for more such questions to be asked in future.
– Mohit
Apr 18 at 12:20