Does “a thing” in sentences generalizes for all things?





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Consider this sentence:



"A government can bring about a degree of corruption abroad that the government itself does not suffer from at home."



Now we know that this sentence is true for at least 1 government (which was British govt here). Can this sentence be taken as true if this may not be true for all governments?










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  • 1





    The way the sentence is written, it does indeed purport to be generally true. We can understand this because of the nature of the indefinite article ("a").

    – aparente001
    May 12 at 4:45






  • 1





    Without context, it could be a general statement. However, it may be a statement in a passage about successive British governments, or any other collection of governments; in which case, "A government" could be limited to the restricted set being considered.

    – Andrew Leach
    May 12 at 10:53


















0















Consider this sentence:



"A government can bring about a degree of corruption abroad that the government itself does not suffer from at home."



Now we know that this sentence is true for at least 1 government (which was British govt here). Can this sentence be taken as true if this may not be true for all governments?










share|improve this question




















  • 1





    The way the sentence is written, it does indeed purport to be generally true. We can understand this because of the nature of the indefinite article ("a").

    – aparente001
    May 12 at 4:45






  • 1





    Without context, it could be a general statement. However, it may be a statement in a passage about successive British governments, or any other collection of governments; in which case, "A government" could be limited to the restricted set being considered.

    – Andrew Leach
    May 12 at 10:53














0












0








0








Consider this sentence:



"A government can bring about a degree of corruption abroad that the government itself does not suffer from at home."



Now we know that this sentence is true for at least 1 government (which was British govt here). Can this sentence be taken as true if this may not be true for all governments?










share|improve this question
















Consider this sentence:



"A government can bring about a degree of corruption abroad that the government itself does not suffer from at home."



Now we know that this sentence is true for at least 1 government (which was British govt here). Can this sentence be taken as true if this may not be true for all governments?







logic general-vs-specific






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













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edited May 12 at 5:00







bhupen

















asked May 12 at 4:24









bhupenbhupen

11




11








  • 1





    The way the sentence is written, it does indeed purport to be generally true. We can understand this because of the nature of the indefinite article ("a").

    – aparente001
    May 12 at 4:45






  • 1





    Without context, it could be a general statement. However, it may be a statement in a passage about successive British governments, or any other collection of governments; in which case, "A government" could be limited to the restricted set being considered.

    – Andrew Leach
    May 12 at 10:53














  • 1





    The way the sentence is written, it does indeed purport to be generally true. We can understand this because of the nature of the indefinite article ("a").

    – aparente001
    May 12 at 4:45






  • 1





    Without context, it could be a general statement. However, it may be a statement in a passage about successive British governments, or any other collection of governments; in which case, "A government" could be limited to the restricted set being considered.

    – Andrew Leach
    May 12 at 10:53








1




1





The way the sentence is written, it does indeed purport to be generally true. We can understand this because of the nature of the indefinite article ("a").

– aparente001
May 12 at 4:45





The way the sentence is written, it does indeed purport to be generally true. We can understand this because of the nature of the indefinite article ("a").

– aparente001
May 12 at 4:45




1




1





Without context, it could be a general statement. However, it may be a statement in a passage about successive British governments, or any other collection of governments; in which case, "A government" could be limited to the restricted set being considered.

– Andrew Leach
May 12 at 10:53





Without context, it could be a general statement. However, it may be a statement in a passage about successive British governments, or any other collection of governments; in which case, "A government" could be limited to the restricted set being considered.

– Andrew Leach
May 12 at 10:53










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