Why no another “nor” in the sentence? [on hold]












0















Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable.



Why there is no another nor in front of "be"?Is the sentence a inversion?And is the infinitive "to be" describes researcher or "behaving"?



Gratitude to people answering in advance.



Original context:
(Paragraph 1)In the Indian trials, however, the controls—a total of 141,000 women—were not offered the pap smears that were supposed (though they were in practice often unavailable) to be the standard for screening in India at the time.
(Paragraph 2)Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable. Another case highlighted by TRUST involved the San, a group of people in southern Africa well known to (and well studied by) the outside world because of their hunter-gatherer way of life, click-laden languages and ancient rock art.










share|improve this question















put on hold as off-topic by FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist 17 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1





    Because we're not negating be. Paraphrasing the sentence, it says Furthermore, it is not the case that a researcher who is abroad has to behave so badly that his behavior is life-threatening for his behavior to be unacceptable. If you changed that sentence to is not life-threatening, the sentence doesn't mean what it was clearly intended to mean.

    – Peter Shor
    Mar 21 at 15:49













  • That sentence is not grammaticalky correct and not understandable. Do you know what it is trying to say? We need to know that to answer the question.

    – Damila
    Mar 21 at 15:51








  • 2





    The sentence as cited could be perfectly grammatical (albeit it "clumsily-worded"), but you haven't provided the preceding context (which would normally be some other explicit assertion framed in the negative). Without that, there's really nothing to talk about here.

    – FumbleFingers
    Mar 21 at 15:59













  • (paragraph 1)In the India...(paragraph 2) Nor need... which confuses me for it started from another paragraph.

    – Nogizaka
    Mar 21 at 16:36






  • 1





    @Damila As a stand-alone sentence, it is perfectly grammatical and understandable. Obviously, it would be preferable to have some kind of context to explain what justifies the nor, but such a context can be supplied without knowing it. It would have been more common to phrase it as “not does behaving badly abroad as a researcher need to be…”, but need can also function as a modal verb, in which case the present phrasing is fine.

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Mar 21 at 20:22
















0















Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable.



Why there is no another nor in front of "be"?Is the sentence a inversion?And is the infinitive "to be" describes researcher or "behaving"?



Gratitude to people answering in advance.



Original context:
(Paragraph 1)In the Indian trials, however, the controls—a total of 141,000 women—were not offered the pap smears that were supposed (though they were in practice often unavailable) to be the standard for screening in India at the time.
(Paragraph 2)Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable. Another case highlighted by TRUST involved the San, a group of people in southern Africa well known to (and well studied by) the outside world because of their hunter-gatherer way of life, click-laden languages and ancient rock art.










share|improve this question















put on hold as off-topic by FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist 17 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1





    Because we're not negating be. Paraphrasing the sentence, it says Furthermore, it is not the case that a researcher who is abroad has to behave so badly that his behavior is life-threatening for his behavior to be unacceptable. If you changed that sentence to is not life-threatening, the sentence doesn't mean what it was clearly intended to mean.

    – Peter Shor
    Mar 21 at 15:49













  • That sentence is not grammaticalky correct and not understandable. Do you know what it is trying to say? We need to know that to answer the question.

    – Damila
    Mar 21 at 15:51








  • 2





    The sentence as cited could be perfectly grammatical (albeit it "clumsily-worded"), but you haven't provided the preceding context (which would normally be some other explicit assertion framed in the negative). Without that, there's really nothing to talk about here.

    – FumbleFingers
    Mar 21 at 15:59













  • (paragraph 1)In the India...(paragraph 2) Nor need... which confuses me for it started from another paragraph.

    – Nogizaka
    Mar 21 at 16:36






  • 1





    @Damila As a stand-alone sentence, it is perfectly grammatical and understandable. Obviously, it would be preferable to have some kind of context to explain what justifies the nor, but such a context can be supplied without knowing it. It would have been more common to phrase it as “not does behaving badly abroad as a researcher need to be…”, but need can also function as a modal verb, in which case the present phrasing is fine.

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Mar 21 at 20:22














0












0








0








Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable.



Why there is no another nor in front of "be"?Is the sentence a inversion?And is the infinitive "to be" describes researcher or "behaving"?



Gratitude to people answering in advance.



Original context:
(Paragraph 1)In the Indian trials, however, the controls—a total of 141,000 women—were not offered the pap smears that were supposed (though they were in practice often unavailable) to be the standard for screening in India at the time.
(Paragraph 2)Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable. Another case highlighted by TRUST involved the San, a group of people in southern Africa well known to (and well studied by) the outside world because of their hunter-gatherer way of life, click-laden languages and ancient rock art.










share|improve this question
















Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable.



Why there is no another nor in front of "be"?Is the sentence a inversion?And is the infinitive "to be" describes researcher or "behaving"?



Gratitude to people answering in advance.



Original context:
(Paragraph 1)In the Indian trials, however, the controls—a total of 141,000 women—were not offered the pap smears that were supposed (though they were in practice often unavailable) to be the standard for screening in India at the time.
(Paragraph 2)Nor need behaving badly abroad as a researcher be life-threatening to be unacceptable. Another case highlighted by TRUST involved the San, a group of people in southern Africa well known to (and well studied by) the outside world because of their hunter-gatherer way of life, click-laden languages and ancient rock art.







conjunctions infinitives






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













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share|improve this question








edited Mar 21 at 16:38







Nogizaka

















asked Mar 21 at 15:47









NogizakaNogizaka

183




183




put on hold as off-topic by FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist 17 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







put on hold as off-topic by FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist 17 hours ago


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – FumbleFingers, TrevorD, tchrist

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1





    Because we're not negating be. Paraphrasing the sentence, it says Furthermore, it is not the case that a researcher who is abroad has to behave so badly that his behavior is life-threatening for his behavior to be unacceptable. If you changed that sentence to is not life-threatening, the sentence doesn't mean what it was clearly intended to mean.

    – Peter Shor
    Mar 21 at 15:49













  • That sentence is not grammaticalky correct and not understandable. Do you know what it is trying to say? We need to know that to answer the question.

    – Damila
    Mar 21 at 15:51








  • 2





    The sentence as cited could be perfectly grammatical (albeit it "clumsily-worded"), but you haven't provided the preceding context (which would normally be some other explicit assertion framed in the negative). Without that, there's really nothing to talk about here.

    – FumbleFingers
    Mar 21 at 15:59













  • (paragraph 1)In the India...(paragraph 2) Nor need... which confuses me for it started from another paragraph.

    – Nogizaka
    Mar 21 at 16:36






  • 1





    @Damila As a stand-alone sentence, it is perfectly grammatical and understandable. Obviously, it would be preferable to have some kind of context to explain what justifies the nor, but such a context can be supplied without knowing it. It would have been more common to phrase it as “not does behaving badly abroad as a researcher need to be…”, but need can also function as a modal verb, in which case the present phrasing is fine.

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Mar 21 at 20:22














  • 1





    Because we're not negating be. Paraphrasing the sentence, it says Furthermore, it is not the case that a researcher who is abroad has to behave so badly that his behavior is life-threatening for his behavior to be unacceptable. If you changed that sentence to is not life-threatening, the sentence doesn't mean what it was clearly intended to mean.

    – Peter Shor
    Mar 21 at 15:49













  • That sentence is not grammaticalky correct and not understandable. Do you know what it is trying to say? We need to know that to answer the question.

    – Damila
    Mar 21 at 15:51








  • 2





    The sentence as cited could be perfectly grammatical (albeit it "clumsily-worded"), but you haven't provided the preceding context (which would normally be some other explicit assertion framed in the negative). Without that, there's really nothing to talk about here.

    – FumbleFingers
    Mar 21 at 15:59













  • (paragraph 1)In the India...(paragraph 2) Nor need... which confuses me for it started from another paragraph.

    – Nogizaka
    Mar 21 at 16:36






  • 1





    @Damila As a stand-alone sentence, it is perfectly grammatical and understandable. Obviously, it would be preferable to have some kind of context to explain what justifies the nor, but such a context can be supplied without knowing it. It would have been more common to phrase it as “not does behaving badly abroad as a researcher need to be…”, but need can also function as a modal verb, in which case the present phrasing is fine.

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Mar 21 at 20:22








1




1





Because we're not negating be. Paraphrasing the sentence, it says Furthermore, it is not the case that a researcher who is abroad has to behave so badly that his behavior is life-threatening for his behavior to be unacceptable. If you changed that sentence to is not life-threatening, the sentence doesn't mean what it was clearly intended to mean.

– Peter Shor
Mar 21 at 15:49







Because we're not negating be. Paraphrasing the sentence, it says Furthermore, it is not the case that a researcher who is abroad has to behave so badly that his behavior is life-threatening for his behavior to be unacceptable. If you changed that sentence to is not life-threatening, the sentence doesn't mean what it was clearly intended to mean.

– Peter Shor
Mar 21 at 15:49















That sentence is not grammaticalky correct and not understandable. Do you know what it is trying to say? We need to know that to answer the question.

– Damila
Mar 21 at 15:51







That sentence is not grammaticalky correct and not understandable. Do you know what it is trying to say? We need to know that to answer the question.

– Damila
Mar 21 at 15:51






2




2





The sentence as cited could be perfectly grammatical (albeit it "clumsily-worded"), but you haven't provided the preceding context (which would normally be some other explicit assertion framed in the negative). Without that, there's really nothing to talk about here.

– FumbleFingers
Mar 21 at 15:59







The sentence as cited could be perfectly grammatical (albeit it "clumsily-worded"), but you haven't provided the preceding context (which would normally be some other explicit assertion framed in the negative). Without that, there's really nothing to talk about here.

– FumbleFingers
Mar 21 at 15:59















(paragraph 1)In the India...(paragraph 2) Nor need... which confuses me for it started from another paragraph.

– Nogizaka
Mar 21 at 16:36





(paragraph 1)In the India...(paragraph 2) Nor need... which confuses me for it started from another paragraph.

– Nogizaka
Mar 21 at 16:36




1




1





@Damila As a stand-alone sentence, it is perfectly grammatical and understandable. Obviously, it would be preferable to have some kind of context to explain what justifies the nor, but such a context can be supplied without knowing it. It would have been more common to phrase it as “not does behaving badly abroad as a researcher need to be…”, but need can also function as a modal verb, in which case the present phrasing is fine.

– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Mar 21 at 20:22





@Damila As a stand-alone sentence, it is perfectly grammatical and understandable. Obviously, it would be preferable to have some kind of context to explain what justifies the nor, but such a context can be supplied without knowing it. It would have been more common to phrase it as “not does behaving badly abroad as a researcher need to be…”, but need can also function as a modal verb, in which case the present phrasing is fine.

– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Mar 21 at 20:22










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