He has just been offered or he was offered
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What are the differences in meaning between these two sentences:
- He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Past Simple Passive)
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Present Perfect Passive)
Both are grammatically correct, but what are the real meaning if I use #1 / #2?
tenses past-tense perfect-aspect
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
add a comment |
What are the differences in meaning between these two sentences:
- He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Past Simple Passive)
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Present Perfect Passive)
Both are grammatically correct, but what are the real meaning if I use #1 / #2?
tenses past-tense perfect-aspect
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
@PartTimer Please read through this FAQ. The questions that you have asked before should be listed on your profile page ...
– coleopterist
Aug 2 '12 at 9:01
Is this American English or British English?
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 9:26
This is British English. Is this the reason why both sentences have different meaning to each other?
– Part Timer
Aug 2 '12 at 9:39
add a comment |
What are the differences in meaning between these two sentences:
- He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Past Simple Passive)
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Present Perfect Passive)
Both are grammatically correct, but what are the real meaning if I use #1 / #2?
tenses past-tense perfect-aspect
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
What are the differences in meaning between these two sentences:
- He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Past Simple Passive)
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four. (Present Perfect Passive)
Both are grammatically correct, but what are the real meaning if I use #1 / #2?
tenses past-tense perfect-aspect
tenses past-tense perfect-aspect
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
edited Aug 8 '15 at 21:29
tchrist♦
110k30295476
110k30295476
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
asked Aug 2 '12 at 8:44
Part TimerPart Timer
2093815
2093815
@PartTimer Please read through this FAQ. The questions that you have asked before should be listed on your profile page ...
– coleopterist
Aug 2 '12 at 9:01
Is this American English or British English?
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 9:26
This is British English. Is this the reason why both sentences have different meaning to each other?
– Part Timer
Aug 2 '12 at 9:39
add a comment |
@PartTimer Please read through this FAQ. The questions that you have asked before should be listed on your profile page ...
– coleopterist
Aug 2 '12 at 9:01
Is this American English or British English?
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 9:26
This is British English. Is this the reason why both sentences have different meaning to each other?
– Part Timer
Aug 2 '12 at 9:39
@PartTimer Please read through this FAQ. The questions that you have asked before should be listed on your profile page ...
– coleopterist
Aug 2 '12 at 9:01
@PartTimer Please read through this FAQ. The questions that you have asked before should be listed on your profile page ...
– coleopterist
Aug 2 '12 at 9:01
Is this American English or British English?
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 9:26
Is this American English or British English?
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 9:26
This is British English. Is this the reason why both sentences have different meaning to each other?
– Part Timer
Aug 2 '12 at 9:39
This is British English. Is this the reason why both sentences have different meaning to each other?
– Part Timer
Aug 2 '12 at 9:39
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Both are grammatically correct, but (1) is not idiomatic usage in British English.
He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
British English speakers might use the active form:
- I have just offered him a well-paid job with Radio Four.
(colloq.) I just offered him that job!
I believe the reason is that He was offered connotes an event some time in the past, and contradicting that with just sounds odd. It's understood though, probably because it is used thus in American English (I believe).
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
1
Might not he was just offered mean he was only offered?
– TimLymington
Aug 2 '12 at 13:56
@Tim Yes, but in the context of the question which matches (1) and (2) as broadly equivalent, it doesn't :-)
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 14:00
I'd disagree that "He was just offered..." is not ideomatic. It's not quite as common as "He has just been offered..." but it's used often enough where I live (English North Midlands) to be familiar. To me "He was just offered..." sounds as though the offer was in the immediate past (maybe he's just come out of his performance review meeting) as opposed to "He has just been offered..." which could apply on that timescale but could also still be used a couple of days later.
– BoldBen
Mar 9 at 2:36
add a comment |
"He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds more recent and has the intended effect in terms of communicating the timing of the offer. It uses the right tense as the present perfect tense is used to talk about events that occurred very recently.
"He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds a bit awkward and doesn't effectively tell the listener about when exactly the job was offered - recently or sometime in the past.
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Both are grammatically correct, but (1) is not idiomatic usage in British English.
He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
British English speakers might use the active form:
- I have just offered him a well-paid job with Radio Four.
(colloq.) I just offered him that job!
I believe the reason is that He was offered connotes an event some time in the past, and contradicting that with just sounds odd. It's understood though, probably because it is used thus in American English (I believe).
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
1
Might not he was just offered mean he was only offered?
– TimLymington
Aug 2 '12 at 13:56
@Tim Yes, but in the context of the question which matches (1) and (2) as broadly equivalent, it doesn't :-)
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 14:00
I'd disagree that "He was just offered..." is not ideomatic. It's not quite as common as "He has just been offered..." but it's used often enough where I live (English North Midlands) to be familiar. To me "He was just offered..." sounds as though the offer was in the immediate past (maybe he's just come out of his performance review meeting) as opposed to "He has just been offered..." which could apply on that timescale but could also still be used a couple of days later.
– BoldBen
Mar 9 at 2:36
add a comment |
Both are grammatically correct, but (1) is not idiomatic usage in British English.
He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
British English speakers might use the active form:
- I have just offered him a well-paid job with Radio Four.
(colloq.) I just offered him that job!
I believe the reason is that He was offered connotes an event some time in the past, and contradicting that with just sounds odd. It's understood though, probably because it is used thus in American English (I believe).
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
1
Might not he was just offered mean he was only offered?
– TimLymington
Aug 2 '12 at 13:56
@Tim Yes, but in the context of the question which matches (1) and (2) as broadly equivalent, it doesn't :-)
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 14:00
I'd disagree that "He was just offered..." is not ideomatic. It's not quite as common as "He has just been offered..." but it's used often enough where I live (English North Midlands) to be familiar. To me "He was just offered..." sounds as though the offer was in the immediate past (maybe he's just come out of his performance review meeting) as opposed to "He has just been offered..." which could apply on that timescale but could also still be used a couple of days later.
– BoldBen
Mar 9 at 2:36
add a comment |
Both are grammatically correct, but (1) is not idiomatic usage in British English.
He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
British English speakers might use the active form:
- I have just offered him a well-paid job with Radio Four.
(colloq.) I just offered him that job!
I believe the reason is that He was offered connotes an event some time in the past, and contradicting that with just sounds odd. It's understood though, probably because it is used thus in American English (I believe).
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
Both are grammatically correct, but (1) is not idiomatic usage in British English.
He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
- He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four.
British English speakers might use the active form:
- I have just offered him a well-paid job with Radio Four.
(colloq.) I just offered him that job!
I believe the reason is that He was offered connotes an event some time in the past, and contradicting that with just sounds odd. It's understood though, probably because it is used thus in American English (I believe).
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
answered Aug 2 '12 at 11:04
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
80.1k8154258
80.1k8154258
1
Might not he was just offered mean he was only offered?
– TimLymington
Aug 2 '12 at 13:56
@Tim Yes, but in the context of the question which matches (1) and (2) as broadly equivalent, it doesn't :-)
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 14:00
I'd disagree that "He was just offered..." is not ideomatic. It's not quite as common as "He has just been offered..." but it's used often enough where I live (English North Midlands) to be familiar. To me "He was just offered..." sounds as though the offer was in the immediate past (maybe he's just come out of his performance review meeting) as opposed to "He has just been offered..." which could apply on that timescale but could also still be used a couple of days later.
– BoldBen
Mar 9 at 2:36
add a comment |
1
Might not he was just offered mean he was only offered?
– TimLymington
Aug 2 '12 at 13:56
@Tim Yes, but in the context of the question which matches (1) and (2) as broadly equivalent, it doesn't :-)
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 14:00
I'd disagree that "He was just offered..." is not ideomatic. It's not quite as common as "He has just been offered..." but it's used often enough where I live (English North Midlands) to be familiar. To me "He was just offered..." sounds as though the offer was in the immediate past (maybe he's just come out of his performance review meeting) as opposed to "He has just been offered..." which could apply on that timescale but could also still be used a couple of days later.
– BoldBen
Mar 9 at 2:36
1
1
Might not he was just offered mean he was only offered?
– TimLymington
Aug 2 '12 at 13:56
Might not he was just offered mean he was only offered?
– TimLymington
Aug 2 '12 at 13:56
@Tim Yes, but in the context of the question which matches (1) and (2) as broadly equivalent, it doesn't :-)
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 14:00
@Tim Yes, but in the context of the question which matches (1) and (2) as broadly equivalent, it doesn't :-)
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 14:00
I'd disagree that "He was just offered..." is not ideomatic. It's not quite as common as "He has just been offered..." but it's used often enough where I live (English North Midlands) to be familiar. To me "He was just offered..." sounds as though the offer was in the immediate past (maybe he's just come out of his performance review meeting) as opposed to "He has just been offered..." which could apply on that timescale but could also still be used a couple of days later.
– BoldBen
Mar 9 at 2:36
I'd disagree that "He was just offered..." is not ideomatic. It's not quite as common as "He has just been offered..." but it's used often enough where I live (English North Midlands) to be familiar. To me "He was just offered..." sounds as though the offer was in the immediate past (maybe he's just come out of his performance review meeting) as opposed to "He has just been offered..." which could apply on that timescale but could also still be used a couple of days later.
– BoldBen
Mar 9 at 2:36
add a comment |
"He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds more recent and has the intended effect in terms of communicating the timing of the offer. It uses the right tense as the present perfect tense is used to talk about events that occurred very recently.
"He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds a bit awkward and doesn't effectively tell the listener about when exactly the job was offered - recently or sometime in the past.
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
add a comment |
"He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds more recent and has the intended effect in terms of communicating the timing of the offer. It uses the right tense as the present perfect tense is used to talk about events that occurred very recently.
"He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds a bit awkward and doesn't effectively tell the listener about when exactly the job was offered - recently or sometime in the past.
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
add a comment |
"He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds more recent and has the intended effect in terms of communicating the timing of the offer. It uses the right tense as the present perfect tense is used to talk about events that occurred very recently.
"He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds a bit awkward and doesn't effectively tell the listener about when exactly the job was offered - recently or sometime in the past.
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
"He has just been offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds more recent and has the intended effect in terms of communicating the timing of the offer. It uses the right tense as the present perfect tense is used to talk about events that occurred very recently.
"He was just offered a well-paid job with Radio Four" sounds a bit awkward and doesn't effectively tell the listener about when exactly the job was offered - recently or sometime in the past.
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
edited 2 days ago
TrevorD
10.7k22458
10.7k22458
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
answered Mar 8 at 18:15
MikeMike
12
12
add a comment |
add a comment |
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@PartTimer Please read through this FAQ. The questions that you have asked before should be listed on your profile page ...
– coleopterist
Aug 2 '12 at 9:01
Is this American English or British English?
– Andrew Leach♦
Aug 2 '12 at 9:26
This is British English. Is this the reason why both sentences have different meaning to each other?
– Part Timer
Aug 2 '12 at 9:39