Hiring someone is unethical to Kantians because you're treating them as a means?
I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?
kant
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
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I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?
kant
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
212
New contributor
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
one example i've seen is taxi drivers, you're not treating a taxi driver as a means by paying them to take you somewhere
– another_name
yesterday
add a comment |
I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?
kant
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
212
New contributor
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
I read it is unethical to hire someone because it breaks the second categorical imperative which is to treat people as an ends. If by hiring someone to do something you are treating them as a means to get a job done and therefore it is unethical. Are there any counters to this?
kant
kant
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
212
New contributor
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
212
New contributor
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 2 days ago
Dylan Yung
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
212
New contributor
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
212
asked Apr 6 at 1:58
Dylan YungDylan Yung
212
212
New contributor
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Dylan Yung is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
one example i've seen is taxi drivers, you're not treating a taxi driver as a means by paying them to take you somewhere
– another_name
yesterday
add a comment |
one example i've seen is taxi drivers, you're not treating a taxi driver as a means by paying them to take you somewhere
– another_name
yesterday
one example i've seen is taxi drivers, you're not treating a taxi driver as a means by paying them to take you somewhere
– another_name
yesterday
one example i've seen is taxi drivers, you're not treating a taxi driver as a means by paying them to take you somewhere
– another_name
yesterday
add a comment |
1 Answer
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You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:
Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.
The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.
Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.
In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.
For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.
For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.
References
http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html
See Also
Kant's second formulation
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .
– PeterJ
2 days ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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active
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
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votes
You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:
Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.
The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.
Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.
In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.
For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.
For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.
References
http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html
See Also
Kant's second formulation
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .
– PeterJ
2 days ago
add a comment |
You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:
Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.
The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.
Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.
In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.
For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.
For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.
References
http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html
See Also
Kant's second formulation
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .
– PeterJ
2 days ago
add a comment |
You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:
Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.
The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.
Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.
In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.
For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.
For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.
References
http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html
See Also
Kant's second formulation
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
You're missing an important word. The second formulation of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork is:
Act in such a way that you always treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never simply as a means, but always at the same time as an end.
The key phrase here is "never simply." Kant has no problem with entering into mutually beneficial rational contracts.
Maybe stated in another way, using someone as a mere means is abusing their rationality by getting them to act in a way inconsistent with how they would act when fully informed.
In fact in the Metaphysics of Morals, this is how Kant understands sex and marriage, because Kant views sex as using another person as the means to your gratification, and he thinks this is only justifiable insofar as you both rationally consent to the arrangement -- and make it permanent.
For instance, Kant sees it as an abuse of a ticket seller to pay with a credit card you know is stolen. Or conversely, to sell seats you know you don't have the rights to.
For Kant, employment itself should be a rationally entered into arrangement between the employer and employee where they understand what they agree to.
References
http://www.utm.edu/staff/jfieser/class/300/categorical.htm
http://alexanderpruss.com/145/KantOnMarriage.html
See Also
Kant's second formulation
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
answered 2 days ago
virmaiorvirmaior
25.4k33997
25.4k33997
An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .
– PeterJ
2 days ago
add a comment |
An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .
– PeterJ
2 days ago
An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .
– PeterJ
2 days ago
An object lesson in how to answer here. I must take notice. .
– PeterJ
2 days ago
add a comment |
Dylan Yung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Dylan Yung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Dylan Yung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Dylan Yung is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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one example i've seen is taxi drivers, you're not treating a taxi driver as a means by paying them to take you somewhere
– another_name
yesterday