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Understanding minimizing cost correctly


Understanding Locally Weighted Linear RegressionUnderstanding Logistic Regression Cost functionCost function for Ordinal Regression using neural networksCustom c++ LSTM slows down at 0.36 cost is usual?Policy Gradient Methods - ScoreFunction & Log(policy)How to Define a Cost Fucntion?Logistic regression cost functionCost function in linear regressionML / Multivariable cost minimization problems / approach summary?Loss function minimizing by pushing precision and recall to 0













2












$begingroup$


I cannot wrap my head around this simple concept.



Suppose we have a linear regression, and there is a single parameter theta to be optimized (for simplicity purposes):



$h(x) = theta cdot x$



The error cost function could be defined as $J(theta) = frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) ^ 2$, for each $x$.



Then, theta would be updated as:



$theta = theta - alphacdot frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) cdot x$, for each $x$.



From my understanding the multiplier after the alpha term is the derivative of the error cost function $J$. This term tells us the direction to head in, in order to arrive at the minimum making a small step at a time. I understand the concept of "hill climbing" correctly, at least I think.



Here is where I don't seem to wrap my head around:



If the form of the error function is known (like in our case: we could visually plot the function if we take enough values of theta and plug them in the model), why can't we take the first derivative and set it to zero (partial derivative if the function has multiple thetas). This way we would have all the minimums of the function. Then with the second derivative, we could determine whether it's a min or a max.



I've seen this done in calculus for simple functions like $y = x^2 + 5x + 2$ (may years ago, maybe I am wrong), so what is stopping us from doing the same thing here?



Sorry for asking such a silly question.



Thank you.










share|improve this question









New contributor




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    2












    $begingroup$


    I cannot wrap my head around this simple concept.



    Suppose we have a linear regression, and there is a single parameter theta to be optimized (for simplicity purposes):



    $h(x) = theta cdot x$



    The error cost function could be defined as $J(theta) = frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) ^ 2$, for each $x$.



    Then, theta would be updated as:



    $theta = theta - alphacdot frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) cdot x$, for each $x$.



    From my understanding the multiplier after the alpha term is the derivative of the error cost function $J$. This term tells us the direction to head in, in order to arrive at the minimum making a small step at a time. I understand the concept of "hill climbing" correctly, at least I think.



    Here is where I don't seem to wrap my head around:



    If the form of the error function is known (like in our case: we could visually plot the function if we take enough values of theta and plug them in the model), why can't we take the first derivative and set it to zero (partial derivative if the function has multiple thetas). This way we would have all the minimums of the function. Then with the second derivative, we could determine whether it's a min or a max.



    I've seen this done in calculus for simple functions like $y = x^2 + 5x + 2$ (may years ago, maybe I am wrong), so what is stopping us from doing the same thing here?



    Sorry for asking such a silly question.



    Thank you.










    share|improve this question









    New contributor




    zafirzarya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I cannot wrap my head around this simple concept.



      Suppose we have a linear regression, and there is a single parameter theta to be optimized (for simplicity purposes):



      $h(x) = theta cdot x$



      The error cost function could be defined as $J(theta) = frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) ^ 2$, for each $x$.



      Then, theta would be updated as:



      $theta = theta - alphacdot frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) cdot x$, for each $x$.



      From my understanding the multiplier after the alpha term is the derivative of the error cost function $J$. This term tells us the direction to head in, in order to arrive at the minimum making a small step at a time. I understand the concept of "hill climbing" correctly, at least I think.



      Here is where I don't seem to wrap my head around:



      If the form of the error function is known (like in our case: we could visually plot the function if we take enough values of theta and plug them in the model), why can't we take the first derivative and set it to zero (partial derivative if the function has multiple thetas). This way we would have all the minimums of the function. Then with the second derivative, we could determine whether it's a min or a max.



      I've seen this done in calculus for simple functions like $y = x^2 + 5x + 2$ (may years ago, maybe I am wrong), so what is stopping us from doing the same thing here?



      Sorry for asking such a silly question.



      Thank you.










      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      zafirzarya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      I cannot wrap my head around this simple concept.



      Suppose we have a linear regression, and there is a single parameter theta to be optimized (for simplicity purposes):



      $h(x) = theta cdot x$



      The error cost function could be defined as $J(theta) = frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) ^ 2$, for each $x$.



      Then, theta would be updated as:



      $theta = theta - alphacdot frac1m cdot sum (h(x) - y(x)) cdot x$, for each $x$.



      From my understanding the multiplier after the alpha term is the derivative of the error cost function $J$. This term tells us the direction to head in, in order to arrive at the minimum making a small step at a time. I understand the concept of "hill climbing" correctly, at least I think.



      Here is where I don't seem to wrap my head around:



      If the form of the error function is known (like in our case: we could visually plot the function if we take enough values of theta and plug them in the model), why can't we take the first derivative and set it to zero (partial derivative if the function has multiple thetas). This way we would have all the minimums of the function. Then with the second derivative, we could determine whether it's a min or a max.



      I've seen this done in calculus for simple functions like $y = x^2 + 5x + 2$ (may years ago, maybe I am wrong), so what is stopping us from doing the same thing here?



      Sorry for asking such a silly question.



      Thank you.







      linear-regression cost-function






      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      zafirzarya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      zafirzarya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 2 days ago









      Siong Thye Goh

      1,332419




      1,332419






      New contributor




      zafirzarya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      asked 2 days ago









      zafirzaryazafirzarya

      132




      132




      New contributor




      zafirzarya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      New contributor





      zafirzarya is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Consider differentiating this $$nabla_theta|Xtheta -y|^2=2X^T(Xtheta -y)=0$$



          Hence solving this, would give us $$X^TXtheta =X^Ty$$



          Solving this would give us the optimal solution theoretically. However, numerical stability is an issue and also don't forget computational complexity. The complexity to solve a linear system is cubic.



          Also, sometimes, we do not even know even have a closed form, a gradient based approach can be more applicable.






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for replying. However, I am not that mathematically literate to understand your answer. Is there a simpler answer?
            $endgroup$
            – zafirzarya
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I found an answer in MSE to illustrate why computing $X^TX$ is bad. Most approaches that aim at directly solving the normal equation is more expensive than a gradient based approach. Also such gradient based approach have been adapted to a sampling based approach as well known as stochastic gradient descent that can handle very big data.
            $endgroup$
            – Siong Thye Goh
            2 days ago










          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Consider differentiating this $$nabla_theta|Xtheta -y|^2=2X^T(Xtheta -y)=0$$



          Hence solving this, would give us $$X^TXtheta =X^Ty$$



          Solving this would give us the optimal solution theoretically. However, numerical stability is an issue and also don't forget computational complexity. The complexity to solve a linear system is cubic.



          Also, sometimes, we do not even know even have a closed form, a gradient based approach can be more applicable.






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for replying. However, I am not that mathematically literate to understand your answer. Is there a simpler answer?
            $endgroup$
            – zafirzarya
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I found an answer in MSE to illustrate why computing $X^TX$ is bad. Most approaches that aim at directly solving the normal equation is more expensive than a gradient based approach. Also such gradient based approach have been adapted to a sampling based approach as well known as stochastic gradient descent that can handle very big data.
            $endgroup$
            – Siong Thye Goh
            2 days ago















          2












          $begingroup$

          Consider differentiating this $$nabla_theta|Xtheta -y|^2=2X^T(Xtheta -y)=0$$



          Hence solving this, would give us $$X^TXtheta =X^Ty$$



          Solving this would give us the optimal solution theoretically. However, numerical stability is an issue and also don't forget computational complexity. The complexity to solve a linear system is cubic.



          Also, sometimes, we do not even know even have a closed form, a gradient based approach can be more applicable.






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for replying. However, I am not that mathematically literate to understand your answer. Is there a simpler answer?
            $endgroup$
            – zafirzarya
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I found an answer in MSE to illustrate why computing $X^TX$ is bad. Most approaches that aim at directly solving the normal equation is more expensive than a gradient based approach. Also such gradient based approach have been adapted to a sampling based approach as well known as stochastic gradient descent that can handle very big data.
            $endgroup$
            – Siong Thye Goh
            2 days ago













          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Consider differentiating this $$nabla_theta|Xtheta -y|^2=2X^T(Xtheta -y)=0$$



          Hence solving this, would give us $$X^TXtheta =X^Ty$$



          Solving this would give us the optimal solution theoretically. However, numerical stability is an issue and also don't forget computational complexity. The complexity to solve a linear system is cubic.



          Also, sometimes, we do not even know even have a closed form, a gradient based approach can be more applicable.






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Consider differentiating this $$nabla_theta|Xtheta -y|^2=2X^T(Xtheta -y)=0$$



          Hence solving this, would give us $$X^TXtheta =X^Ty$$



          Solving this would give us the optimal solution theoretically. However, numerical stability is an issue and also don't forget computational complexity. The complexity to solve a linear system is cubic.



          Also, sometimes, we do not even know even have a closed form, a gradient based approach can be more applicable.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 2 days ago









          Siong Thye GohSiong Thye Goh

          1,332419




          1,332419







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for replying. However, I am not that mathematically literate to understand your answer. Is there a simpler answer?
            $endgroup$
            – zafirzarya
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I found an answer in MSE to illustrate why computing $X^TX$ is bad. Most approaches that aim at directly solving the normal equation is more expensive than a gradient based approach. Also such gradient based approach have been adapted to a sampling based approach as well known as stochastic gradient descent that can handle very big data.
            $endgroup$
            – Siong Thye Goh
            2 days ago












          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for replying. However, I am not that mathematically literate to understand your answer. Is there a simpler answer?
            $endgroup$
            – zafirzarya
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            I found an answer in MSE to illustrate why computing $X^TX$ is bad. Most approaches that aim at directly solving the normal equation is more expensive than a gradient based approach. Also such gradient based approach have been adapted to a sampling based approach as well known as stochastic gradient descent that can handle very big data.
            $endgroup$
            – Siong Thye Goh
            2 days ago







          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for replying. However, I am not that mathematically literate to understand your answer. Is there a simpler answer?
          $endgroup$
          – zafirzarya
          2 days ago




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for replying. However, I am not that mathematically literate to understand your answer. Is there a simpler answer?
          $endgroup$
          – zafirzarya
          2 days ago












          $begingroup$
          I found an answer in MSE to illustrate why computing $X^TX$ is bad. Most approaches that aim at directly solving the normal equation is more expensive than a gradient based approach. Also such gradient based approach have been adapted to a sampling based approach as well known as stochastic gradient descent that can handle very big data.
          $endgroup$
          – Siong Thye Goh
          2 days ago




          $begingroup$
          I found an answer in MSE to illustrate why computing $X^TX$ is bad. Most approaches that aim at directly solving the normal equation is more expensive than a gradient based approach. Also such gradient based approach have been adapted to a sampling based approach as well known as stochastic gradient descent that can handle very big data.
          $endgroup$
          – Siong Thye Goh
          2 days ago










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