Unnormalized Log Probability - RNNIs There any RNN method used for Object detectionHow is the LSTM RNN forget gate calculated?How to train the same RNN over multiple series?Find most important inputs of LSTM-RNN for multivariate time series modelingLoss function for an RNN used for binary classificationWhy the RNN has input shape error?Input and output Dimension of LSTM RNNWhat is the advantage of using RNN with fixed timestep length over Neural Network?Need to make an multivariate RNN, confused about input shape?RNN for prediciting Development over time

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Unnormalized Log Probability - RNN


Is There any RNN method used for Object detectionHow is the LSTM RNN forget gate calculated?How to train the same RNN over multiple series?Find most important inputs of LSTM-RNN for multivariate time series modelingLoss function for an RNN used for binary classificationWhy the RNN has input shape error?Input and output Dimension of LSTM RNNWhat is the advantage of using RNN with fixed timestep length over Neural Network?Need to make an multivariate RNN, confused about input shape?RNN for prediciting Development over time













2












$begingroup$


I am going through the deep learning book by Goodfellow. In the RNN section I am stuck with the following:



RNN is defined like following:



enter image description here



And the equations are :



enter image description here



enter image description here



Now the $O^(t)$ above is considered as unnormalized log probability. But if this is true, then the value of $O^(t)$ must be negative because,



Probability is always defined as a number between 0 and 1, i.e, $Pin[0,1]$, where brackets denote closed interval. And $log(P) le 0$ on this interval. But in the equations above, nowhere this condition that $O^(t) le 0$ is explicitly enforced.



What am I missing!










share|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    I am going through the deep learning book by Goodfellow. In the RNN section I am stuck with the following:



    RNN is defined like following:



    enter image description here



    And the equations are :



    enter image description here



    enter image description here



    Now the $O^(t)$ above is considered as unnormalized log probability. But if this is true, then the value of $O^(t)$ must be negative because,



    Probability is always defined as a number between 0 and 1, i.e, $Pin[0,1]$, where brackets denote closed interval. And $log(P) le 0$ on this interval. But in the equations above, nowhere this condition that $O^(t) le 0$ is explicitly enforced.



    What am I missing!










    share|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I am going through the deep learning book by Goodfellow. In the RNN section I am stuck with the following:



      RNN is defined like following:



      enter image description here



      And the equations are :



      enter image description here



      enter image description here



      Now the $O^(t)$ above is considered as unnormalized log probability. But if this is true, then the value of $O^(t)$ must be negative because,



      Probability is always defined as a number between 0 and 1, i.e, $Pin[0,1]$, where brackets denote closed interval. And $log(P) le 0$ on this interval. But in the equations above, nowhere this condition that $O^(t) le 0$ is explicitly enforced.



      What am I missing!










      share|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am going through the deep learning book by Goodfellow. In the RNN section I am stuck with the following:



      RNN is defined like following:



      enter image description here



      And the equations are :



      enter image description here



      enter image description here



      Now the $O^(t)$ above is considered as unnormalized log probability. But if this is true, then the value of $O^(t)$ must be negative because,



      Probability is always defined as a number between 0 and 1, i.e, $Pin[0,1]$, where brackets denote closed interval. And $log(P) le 0$ on this interval. But in the equations above, nowhere this condition that $O^(t) le 0$ is explicitly enforced.



      What am I missing!







      deep-learning lstm recurrent-neural-net






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 2 days ago









      Siong Thye Goh

      1,332419




      1,332419










      asked 2 days ago









      user3001408user3001408

      360146




      360146




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          You are right in a sense that it is better to be called log of unnormalized probability. This way, the quantity could be positive or negative. For example, $textlog(0.5) < 0$ and $textlog(12) > 0$ are both valid log of unnormalized probabilities. Here, in more detail:



          1. Probability: $P(i) = e^o_i/sum_k=1^Ke^o_k$ (using softmax as mentioned in Figure 10.3 caption, and assuming $mathbfo=(o_1,..,o_K)$ is the output of layer before softmax),


          2. Unnormalized probability: $tildeP(i) = e^o_i$, which can be larger than 1,


          3. Log of unnormalized probability: $textlogtildeP(i) = o_i$, which can be positive or negative.






          share|improve this answer











          $endgroup$




















            2












            $begingroup$

            You are right, nothing stop $o_k^(t)$ from being nonnegative, the keyword here is "unnormalized".



            If we let $o_k^(t)=ln q_k^(t)$



            $$haty^(t)_k= fracexp(o^(t)_k)sum_k=1^K exp(o^(t)_k) = fracq_k^(t)sum_k=1^K q_k^(t)$$



            Here $q_k^(t)$ can be any positive number, they will be normalized to be sum to $1$.






            share|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












              Your Answer





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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              3












              $begingroup$

              You are right in a sense that it is better to be called log of unnormalized probability. This way, the quantity could be positive or negative. For example, $textlog(0.5) < 0$ and $textlog(12) > 0$ are both valid log of unnormalized probabilities. Here, in more detail:



              1. Probability: $P(i) = e^o_i/sum_k=1^Ke^o_k$ (using softmax as mentioned in Figure 10.3 caption, and assuming $mathbfo=(o_1,..,o_K)$ is the output of layer before softmax),


              2. Unnormalized probability: $tildeP(i) = e^o_i$, which can be larger than 1,


              3. Log of unnormalized probability: $textlogtildeP(i) = o_i$, which can be positive or negative.






              share|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                3












                $begingroup$

                You are right in a sense that it is better to be called log of unnormalized probability. This way, the quantity could be positive or negative. For example, $textlog(0.5) < 0$ and $textlog(12) > 0$ are both valid log of unnormalized probabilities. Here, in more detail:



                1. Probability: $P(i) = e^o_i/sum_k=1^Ke^o_k$ (using softmax as mentioned in Figure 10.3 caption, and assuming $mathbfo=(o_1,..,o_K)$ is the output of layer before softmax),


                2. Unnormalized probability: $tildeP(i) = e^o_i$, which can be larger than 1,


                3. Log of unnormalized probability: $textlogtildeP(i) = o_i$, which can be positive or negative.






                share|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  You are right in a sense that it is better to be called log of unnormalized probability. This way, the quantity could be positive or negative. For example, $textlog(0.5) < 0$ and $textlog(12) > 0$ are both valid log of unnormalized probabilities. Here, in more detail:



                  1. Probability: $P(i) = e^o_i/sum_k=1^Ke^o_k$ (using softmax as mentioned in Figure 10.3 caption, and assuming $mathbfo=(o_1,..,o_K)$ is the output of layer before softmax),


                  2. Unnormalized probability: $tildeP(i) = e^o_i$, which can be larger than 1,


                  3. Log of unnormalized probability: $textlogtildeP(i) = o_i$, which can be positive or negative.






                  share|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  You are right in a sense that it is better to be called log of unnormalized probability. This way, the quantity could be positive or negative. For example, $textlog(0.5) < 0$ and $textlog(12) > 0$ are both valid log of unnormalized probabilities. Here, in more detail:



                  1. Probability: $P(i) = e^o_i/sum_k=1^Ke^o_k$ (using softmax as mentioned in Figure 10.3 caption, and assuming $mathbfo=(o_1,..,o_K)$ is the output of layer before softmax),


                  2. Unnormalized probability: $tildeP(i) = e^o_i$, which can be larger than 1,


                  3. Log of unnormalized probability: $textlogtildeP(i) = o_i$, which can be positive or negative.







                  share|improve this answer














                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer








                  edited 2 days ago

























                  answered 2 days ago









                  EsmailianEsmailian

                  1,511113




                  1,511113





















                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      You are right, nothing stop $o_k^(t)$ from being nonnegative, the keyword here is "unnormalized".



                      If we let $o_k^(t)=ln q_k^(t)$



                      $$haty^(t)_k= fracexp(o^(t)_k)sum_k=1^K exp(o^(t)_k) = fracq_k^(t)sum_k=1^K q_k^(t)$$



                      Here $q_k^(t)$ can be any positive number, they will be normalized to be sum to $1$.






                      share|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        You are right, nothing stop $o_k^(t)$ from being nonnegative, the keyword here is "unnormalized".



                        If we let $o_k^(t)=ln q_k^(t)$



                        $$haty^(t)_k= fracexp(o^(t)_k)sum_k=1^K exp(o^(t)_k) = fracq_k^(t)sum_k=1^K q_k^(t)$$



                        Here $q_k^(t)$ can be any positive number, they will be normalized to be sum to $1$.






                        share|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          You are right, nothing stop $o_k^(t)$ from being nonnegative, the keyword here is "unnormalized".



                          If we let $o_k^(t)=ln q_k^(t)$



                          $$haty^(t)_k= fracexp(o^(t)_k)sum_k=1^K exp(o^(t)_k) = fracq_k^(t)sum_k=1^K q_k^(t)$$



                          Here $q_k^(t)$ can be any positive number, they will be normalized to be sum to $1$.






                          share|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          You are right, nothing stop $o_k^(t)$ from being nonnegative, the keyword here is "unnormalized".



                          If we let $o_k^(t)=ln q_k^(t)$



                          $$haty^(t)_k= fracexp(o^(t)_k)sum_k=1^K exp(o^(t)_k) = fracq_k^(t)sum_k=1^K q_k^(t)$$



                          Here $q_k^(t)$ can be any positive number, they will be normalized to be sum to $1$.







                          share|improve this answer












                          share|improve this answer



                          share|improve this answer










                          answered 2 days ago









                          Siong Thye GohSiong Thye Goh

                          1,332419




                          1,332419



























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